What Does The Johannine Jesus Mean In John 14.3 When He Says, If I Go . . . I Will Come Back?

What does the Johannine Jesus mean in John 14.3 when he says, “if I go . . . I will come back”?

By Writer Eli Kittim

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SBLGNT:

καὶ ἐὰν πορευθῶ καὶ ἑτοιμάσω τόπον ὑμῖν, πάλιν ἔρχομαι καὶ παραλήμψομαι ὑμᾶς πρὸς ἐμαυτόν, ἵνα ὅπου εἰμὶ ἐγὼ καὶ ὑμεῖς ἦτε (Jn. 14.3).

Translation:

“If I go away and prepare a place for you, I will come back and receive you to Myself, so that where I am you may be also” (HCSB).

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Definitions

In John 14.3, one of the meanings of the Greek word πορεύομαι (I go) is “die.” It can also mean “travel,” “journey,” or “go.” It comes from the root word “poros,” which means “passageway.” Thus, the connotation is “to depart.”

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Is Jesus a General Contractor Or Does He Mean Something Else?

So the question arises: is Jesus going to Heaven to begin preparation and arrangements for the biggest building projects in Heaven’s history? Is that what he really means? Is he going away in order to supervise large developments that will serve as living quarters for humans who will one day be transported there? Is that what he means? And then he will “come back” thousands of years later when the projects have been completed, for it takes a long time to build such ambitious developments? Is that the proper biblical interpretation of what he means when he says, “I go away and prepare a place for you”?

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Old Testament Parallels

First, let’s start with a basic question: how does Jesus “prepare a place” for us? Is it by using lawn mowers, cement, bricks, architectural plans, tractors, and the like? Or is it through other means? Obviously, since Jesus’ teachings are spiritually-based, it would seem pointless to look toward materialistic explanations. Therefore, we must look for parallels and verbal agreements elsewhere in the Bible in order to find out exactly what he means. For example, in Isaiah 14.21, to “Prepare a place” means to prepare a slaughtering place מַטְבֵּ֖חַ (matbeach) in order “to slaughter his children for the sins of their ancestors” (cf. Mt. 23.35 NIV). Therefore, in preparing a place, a slaughter house is indicated. Similarly, within the passion narrative, when the Johannine Jesus uttered these words, we knew exactly where he was going; namely, to his death! According to Christian theology, the atonement, namely, the “cross” or the •slaughterhouse•, prepares a place for us through the forgiveness of sins, so that we might become the sons and daughters of God through the blood of Jesus. So, it turns out that Jesus is not going to Heaven; he’s going to his death!

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Jesus Will “Come Back” Not from Heaven But from Death

Second, as already mentioned, in the Greek, the word for “go” (πορευθῶ), in the phrase “if I go,” can mean “to go,” to “journey,” to “die,” or to “depart.” Thus, when the Johannine Jesus says “If I go away and prepare a place for you, I will come back,” is he referring to a second coming that will occur possibly thousands of years later, or does he mean something else? Something, perhaps, related to why he is going away in the first place? Based on the aforementioned exegesis, it seemingly means that he “will come back” from the dead (cf. Heb. 9.26-28). Accordingly, it turns out that in John 14.1-3 Jesus is not talking about going to Heaven and then returning in a second coming thousands of years later. Rather, he’s referring to his sacrificial death, which prepares the way to Heaven for all humanity, after which he soon returns from the dead for the rapture (to “receive you to Myself”) and for our ultimate ascension into Heaven. So, whereas the classic interpretation proposed bizarre and remote gaps in chronology between Jesus’ death and resurrection, as well as His appearance in the sky out of nowhere centuries later, the current interpretation is robust precisely because it follows the biblical jargon closely and understands it to be a natural contemporaneous sequence of events within one single lifetime.

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New Testament Parallels

Third, John 14.3 can certainly mean “I go to my death” precisely because a similar phrase (“I’m ready to go” away)——using the exact same Greek word πορεύομαι——is used elsewhere in the New Testament to mean that the person is going “to [his] death”:

SBLGNT

ἕτοιμός εἰμι καὶ εἰς θάνατον πορεύεσθαι (Luke 22:33).

Translation:

“I'm ready to go . . . to death!" (HCSB).

Thus, the translation and exegesis of the Biblical languages from both the Old and New Testaments confirms that Jesus is seemingly predicting his death in John 14.3. Jesus is basically saying, “I prepare a place for you” by dying for you!

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Jesus is Not Preparing a House; He’s Preparing an Atonement

Fourth, contextually speaking, even Jn 14.2 (the previous verse) demonstrates that Jesus rejects the notion that his message is about living accommodations. Indeed, he stresses that Heaven already has all the accommodations it needs. If it didn’t, he would have told us. In other words, that’s NOT what he meant, and so he switches gears, so to speak, and ends the verse by saying, “I go to prepare a place for you” (πορεύομαι ἑτοιμάσαι τόπον ὑμῖν):

“In My Father's house are many dwelling places; if not, I would have told you. I am going away to prepare a place for you” (HCSB).

The question is, where does he go? Answer: to his death. He must die first. That’s the clue. That’s where he goes because “without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness” (Heb. 9.22 HCSB). And we already know from the gospel narratives precisely where he intends to go, and how the story ends!

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Jesus Will “Come Back” For the Resurrection and the Rapture

Fifth, then in v. 3 he says, “If I go . . . I will come back and receive you to Myself, so that where I am you may be also.” That sounds like “rapture” language (cf. 1 Thess. 4.16-17), which resembles the resurrection theme in Heb. 9.28 that closely follows the death motif in Heb. 9.26b. John 14.3 employs the term παραλήμψομαι, which comes from the verb παραλαμβάνω and means “I take”——cf. “taken” [as in the rapture] at Gen. 5.24 & Mt. 24.40-41—-or “I receive.” So, the “come back” motif could certainly imply a •resurrection from the dead.• It is not out of the question precisely because it’s not a “parousia” that the text is referring to but rather a “come back” πάλιν ἔρχομαι (cf. ἐκ δευτέρου “for a second time” rather than παρουσία in Heb. 9.28). Therefore, just as in Luke 22.33 in which the going away (πορεύομαι) is a going forth to one’s death, so the “come back” theme in Jn 14.3 can certainly imply from the grave, from death, that is, to receive us in the “rapture.”

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Conclusion: The Events of John 14.3 Obviously Suggest A Futurist Eschatological Model

The logical conclusion of this brief study leads to the final question, namely, if Jesus’ death and resurrection are closely followed by the “rapture,” then how could this contemporaneous sequence of events take place in first century Palestine? It could not! Thus, if the Jesus-saying, “if I go away . . . I will come back” means that Jesus will *come-back-from-the-dead* for the •rapture,• then obviously John 14.3 can only be interpreted through a future eschatological model that would account for the contemporaneity of these events! That’s precisely why Jesus says, “In a little while you will see me no more, and then after a little while you will see me” (Jn 16.16).

The New Testament Epistolary literature certainly supports such a model through numerous references (cf. 1 Jn 2.28; Rev. 12.5; 19.10d NRSV). Due to time constraints, I will confine myself to two examples:

1) “Once in the end of the world hath he [Jesus] appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice [death] of himself” (Heb. 9.26b KJV emphasis added).

2) “He was marked out before the world was made, and was revealed at the final point of time” (1 Pet. 1.20 NJB emphasis added).

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How Are We Saved: Is It Simply By Belief Alone, Or Do We Have To Go Out Of Ourselves Ecstatically In Order To Make That Happen?

By Author Eli Kittim

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What does the Bible say about salvation?

Romans 8.14 implies that if you’re not “led by the Spirit” you’re NOT a child of God. The phrase “led by the Spirit” implies an actual “existential experience” (cf. Mt. 4.1), not mere belief (i.e. an idea presumed, but not known):

“For all who are led by the Spirit of God are children of God” (Rom. 8.14).

Romans 8.9 makes it absolutely clear that without the indwelling of the Holy Spirit we are not saved: https://biblehub.com/romans/8-9.htm

Jesus also makes it very clear in John 3.3 that you can not even see the kingdom of God, let alone be possessed by it, unless you are born again: https://biblehub.com/john/3-3.htm

That’s precisely why the Epistle to the Ephesians instructs us to put away the “old self” and to put on a new identity, namely, “the new self,” which is made in the image of God:

“You were taught to put away your former way of life, your old self, corrupt and deluded by its lusts, and to be renewed in the spirit of your minds, and to clothe yourselves with the new self, created according to the likeness of God in true righteousness and holiness” (4.22-24 NRSV).

And, of course, we must “grow in the grace and knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ” (2 Pet. 3.18) and truly believe “that Jesus is Lord” (Rom. 10.9), especially in the midst of this existential crisis!

*****

All these verses seem to indicate that the requirements for salvation involve considerable risk. Therefore, we must undergo some kind of personal existential experience (or a Dark night of the soul) in order for a transformation to take place. It is only in the midst of this mysterium tremendum, or existential dread, that salvation can take place. Thus, Philippians 2.12 poignantly says, “So work with fear and trembling to discover what it really means to be saved” (CEV): https://biblehub.com/philippians/2-12.htm

Ezekiel 36.26 drives home this spiritual idea of death and resurrection: “I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit in you” (cf. John 12.24)!

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We must first die to our ego before we can reach out for God in faith

The language of the New Testament thus implies that we have to go out of ourselves in order to find God, as Thomas Merton used to say. For example, 2 Corinthians 5:13 suggests that Paul (and by implication each and every apostle) had lost his identity to gain Christ’s (cf. Gal. 2.20):

εἴτε γὰρ ἐξέστημεν, θεῷ ·

Translation: “If we are out of our mind, it is for God” (BSB): https://biblehub.com/2_corinthians/5-13.htm

So the question arises: Why is a *Mad-Mind* mentioned in 2 Corinthians 5:13, and what exactly is Paul trying to teach us about the process or the goal of Salvation?

Astoundingly, we find the exact same theme reiterated in Mark 3.21 where Jesus himself is said to be “out of his mind” (which may be an allusion to the biblical narrative known as the “Temptation of Christ” in which after being baptized Jesus was led by the Spirit into the Judaean Desert to be tempted by Satan): https://biblehub.com/mark/3-21.htm

The soteriological point of that existential experience is that Jesus must lose his identity so as to enter into the divine union with God. I’m by no means suggesting “Adoptionism,” the notion that Jesus was adopted as the Son of God at his baptism. No! Not at all! All I’m saying is that Jesus becomes one of us by taking on human nature (and all the suffering that it entails) so that he, too, like us, is confined to the same spiritual process and requirement of transcending the “self.” As Søren Kierkegaard once wrote, “to have faith is precisely to lose one’s mind so as to win God” (The Sickness Unto Death: A Christian Psychological Exposition for Upbuilding and Awakening)!

Similarly, John of the Cross, the celebrated 16th century mystic, says that during “the night of sense” a spirit of dizziness overtakes the spiritual faculties of an individual. This energy overwhelms the mind and causes it to lose its identity. That’s probably what Isaiah 19.14 is all about: https://biblehub.com/isaiah/19-14.htm

Do you recall Acts 2.15 in which Peter had to explain to the crowd that “Indeed, these are not drunk, as you suppose, “ but rather filled with the Holy Spirit?

A contemplative exegesis of Psalm 107.27-30 suggests this mystical journey through the Dark night of the soul:

“they reeled and staggered like drunkards, and were at their wits' end. Then they cried to the Lord in their trouble, and he brought them out from their distress; he made the storm be still, and the waves of the sea were hushed. Then they were glad because they had quiet, and he brought them to their desired haven.”

This is reminiscent of the path of the mania of love (or the madness sent from the gods) by which we arrive at divine knowledge, as exemplified in Plato’s works: Phaedrus and Symposium. Evagrios the Solitary (aka Evagrios Pontikos), a mystical monk from Pontus (ca. 345-399 ce), says something similar about the prayer of stillness, “which by virtue of the most intense love transports to the noetic realm the intellect that longs for wisdom” (The Philokalia: The Complete Text; Compiled by St. Nikodimos of the Holy Mountain and St. Makarios of Corinth. Trans. G.E.H. Palmer, Philip Sherrard and Kallistos Ware. Vol. 1. [London: Faber, 1983], p. 62).

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The Beatitudes must be understood in the same exact context. They’re not a political manifesto that calls for social reform, nor are they about the materially poor or the physically hungry. Matthew 5.3 reads: “Blessed are the poor in spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven.” Notice that Matthew doesn’t say that they are poor in the sense that they lack sufficient money, but rather that they’re “poor in spirit,” as are those who enter the dark night of the soul! Similarly, the text unambiguously says: “those who hunger and thirst for righteousness” (Mt. 5.6), not for food and drink! It would appear then that the Beatitudes are a guide to inner transformation or regeneration, what it means to be “born from above” (3.3) in the Johannine gospel. Only those who are poor in spirit (not in money), who have emptied themselves and have become as nothing can be blessed, meek, righteous, merciful, pure in heart, peaceful, and loving! Why? Because only those can be “born from above” and “be called children of God” (Mt. 5.9) and receive “the kingdom of heaven” (Mt. 5.10). Only those are worthy of salvation! No one else. That’s the point!

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How then is the Dark night of the soul (which makes us poor in spirit) depicted in Scripture?

One illustration might come from Isaiah 6.5:

“Woe is me! I am lost, for I am a man of unclean lips, and I live among a people of unclean lips; yet my eyes have seen the King, the Lord of hosts!”

Elsewhere, Isaiah 50.10 reads:

“Who among you fears the Lord and obeys the voice of his servant, who walks in darkness and has no light, yet trusts in the name of the Lord and relies upon his God?”

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It’s quite clear from Exodus 20.21 that we can only approach God in darkness:

“Then the people stood at a distance, while Moses drew near to the thick darkness where God was.”

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So if this is in fact the cost of salvation, how do we obtain it?

Well, first we have to “estimate the cost”:

“Suppose one of you wants to build a tower. Won't you first sit down and estimate the cost to see if you have enough money to complete it?” (Lk. 14.28).

If you reply to this question in the affirmative, then the next question is a practical one, namely, how do we proceed?

Answer: Not through discursive thinking but rather through meditation. That’s because God can only be found in silence. Thought is a distraction. One form of Western contemplation that goes back to the desert fathers of Egypt is what is known as *Centering Prayer.* This is a popular Christian meditation that places a strong emphasis on interior silence. In a very advanced stage it leads to inner transformation and union with Christ! In other words, it leads to authentic salvation! And the litmus test of that experience is that you fall madly in love with Jesus Christ!

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Allegorically speaking, Matthew 6.6 alludes to this prayer of stillness when it says:

“But whenever you pray, go into your room and shut the door and pray to your Father who is in secret; and your Father who sees in secret will reward you.”

The Hebrew Bible also says: “Be still, and know that I am God” (Psalm 46.10; 62.5)!

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Conclusion

Salvation is not an act of the will or the intellect. Rather, it’s a transformation of the mind: a rebirth! This, then, is the noblest path to salvation, the symbolic road to Emmaus that leads to resurrection, regeneration, and new life! But regeneration and rebirth from above (Jn 3.3-6) require much suffering (Heb. 12.6), pain (Acts 14.22), fear (Phil. 2.12), as well as deep and profound changes to the personality (Acts 2.1-4, 15; 9.20-22). That’s why in 2 Corinthians 12.9 God doesn’t say “my power is made perfect in weakness,” but rather “my power is accomplished in illness.” Most, if not all, Bible versions translate the Greek word ἀσθενείᾳ as “weakness.” But ἀσθενείᾳ really means “illness.” In other words, God’s power is manifested and accomplished in us when we become ill: that is, mentally ill! This, more accurate, translation should really change our understanding of soteriology & inform us about the process of salvation itself❗️

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Three Questions On the Rapture: Is it Pre-Trib or Post-Trib? Is it Secret or Not? And is it Imminent?

By Goodreads Author Eli Kittim

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Is the Rapture Visible or Invisible?

Although there are a few early references to the “rapture” in certain Christian works——such as the late 6th century “Apocalypse of Pseudo-Ephraem”——the putative “secret rapture” and the “futurist eschatological view” of prophecy were largely developed by Cardinal Robert Bellarmine (1542-1621) and Jesuit theologian Francisco Ribera (1537-1591) during the Counter-Reformation, and were later co-opted by the 19th century Bible teacher, John Nelson Darby. In modern times, author Hal Lindsey popularized this view in his best-selling 1970 book, “The Late, Great Planet Earth.”

Given that 1 Cor. 15.51-52 (NRSV) says that “we will all be changed, in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye,” this New Testament (NT) passage is adduced by Bible prophecy scholars to explain that “the body of Christ” (i.e. “the church”) will suddenly vanish and disappear. Recently, both Dr. Ed Hindson and pastor Mark Hitchcock also used 1 Cor. 15.51-52 to support a secret and instant rapture in which the faithful “in Christ" will evanesce. In fact, in their book “Can we still believe in the Rapture?” they aver that even Jesus will not be visibly seen except *only* by the faithful. Despite the fact that these authors have a penchant for rigorous scholarship, since they tout themselves as Bible prophecy pundits, they have nevertheless prescinded numerous contradictory passages. Rev. 1.7 is a case in point: “He [Jesus] is coming with the clouds; every eye will see him.” Similarly, Mt. 24.30 says: “they will see ‘the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven' with power and great glory.” In fact, the coming of the Son of Man is likened to lightning, which “comes from the east and flashes as far as the west” (Mt. 24.27). Therefore, there will clearly be a visible and physical manifestation of Jesus’ coming in the sky! After which “he will send out his angels . . . and they will gather his elect” (Mt. 24.31).

Another reason why the rapture is reputed to be a *secret* is because 2 Pet. 3.10 says that “the day of the Lord will come like a thief.” However, notice that “the heavens will pass away with a loud noise, and the elements will be dissolved with fire.” This verse evinces that “a loud noise” will be heard and that the physical properties of the earth will be destroyed in a great conflagration. Thus, the key components of this experience unambiguously comprise audible, visible, and physical phenomena.

A further reason for the supposed “secret rapture” has to do with the postmortem changes in the human body that are said to make it imperishable and immortal (1 Cor. 15.53). But just because “the dead will be raised imperishable, and we will be changed” (1 Cor. 15.52), doesn’t mean that the *rapture* is inaudible or invisible. Even if Paul is talking about an eminently spiritualized body doesn’t mean that it cannot be seen. For instance, Jesus is depicted as being both visible and physical after his purported resurrection. By way of illustration, the disciples allegedly “ate and drank with him after he rose from the dead” (Acts 10.41), and he was also said to be physically touched by Thomas (Jn 20.27).

What is more, all the Biblical evidence contradicts the notion that the rapture will be visible only to a select few. For example, similar to Jesus’ loud, audible shout during the rapture in 1 Thess. 4.16, Jer. 25.30 also prophesies that “The Lord will roar from on high . . . and shout” when he appears. This is a running theme throughout the Bible. It’s reminiscent of Psalm 50.3: “Our God comes and does not keep silence.” Thus, the most viable interpretation of these verses must of necessity render the grounds for the “secret rapture” untenable!

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Is the Rapture Imminent?

Before we discuss the *timing* of the rapture, it is important to consider whether or not it is imminent. John A. Sproule, a pretribulationist author, once said that "imminence" is defined as the belief that "Christ can return for His Church ‘at any moment’ and that no predicted event will intervene before that return.” However, this is a moot point since 2 Thess. 2.1-3 teaches against the doctrine of imminence and stresses that the rapture cannot take place “unless the rebellion comes first and the lawless one is revealed.” Second Thessalonians 2.1 is using rapture language (Gk. ἐπισυναγωγῆς ἐπ αὐτόν; “gathered together to him”). Matthew 24.31 uses the exact same word (ἐπισυνάγω) in reference to the rapture! Moreover, there’s a further condition that has to be met before the rapture can take place, and before the “lawless one” (i.e. the Antichrist) can be revealed, namely, someone needs to be removed from the earth.

A common misinterpretation is that this must either be a reference to the *Holy Spirit* or to the *church*, which will be taken out of the way before the Antichrist can be revealed. But if it is the Holy Spirit or the church it would directly contradict the Book of Revelation (7.13-14), which foresees a great spiritual revival during the time of the Great Tribulation (GT). For instance, John the Revelator sees “a great multitude that” came “out of the great ordeal [GT]” (Rev. 7.9, 14). This multitude represents the “church” of Christ, which is obviously present, not absent, during the GT. And without the Holy Spirit no one can be saved (Rom. 8.9b). Therefore, the so-called “restrainer” of 2 Thess. 2.6-7 can neither be the Holy Spirit nor the church. This mysterious figure can only be explained by my unique eschatological view. Since I hold that the first horseman of the Apocalypse is Christ (the white horseman), it is he and he alone who is the restrainer, and after he is slain the Antichrist will be revealed (see my article: https://www.google.com/amp/s/eli-kittim.tumblr.com/post/168159235542/who-is-the-first-horseman-of-the-apocalypse/amp).

Eli of Kittim

WHO IS THE FIRST HORSEMAN OF THE APOCALYPSE?

By Eli of Kittim THERE ARE NO COUNTERFEIT SIGNS IN THE BIBLE There are no counterfeit signs found anywhere in the Bible. So why should

Another reason why the “restrainer” cannot be the “church” is because if 2 Thess. 2.1-3 says that the *rapture-of-the-church* cannot occur “unless . . . the lawless one is revealed” first, the text would be contradicting itself later by saying the exact opposite, namely, that the lawless one cannot be revealed unless the *church* (2 Thess. 2.6-7) is removed first. Furthermore, in koine Greek, the church is never referred to as a man, using the nominative masculine singular form of the definite article (Gk. ὁ “ho” 2 Thess. 2.7). It cannot be the Holy Spirit either because if it were to be removed from the earth no one would be saved, thereby contradicting Rev. 7.9-14, among other passages.

So, the only legitimate candidate for the “restrainer” position, in 2 Thess 2, is Christ, who will be taken out of the way (slain; cf. Heb. 9.26b) and then the Antichrist will be revealed! Hence, according to Scripture, the *rapture* cannot possibly be imminent precisely because three significant events must first occur: the rebellion, the removal of the restrainer, and the revelation of the lawless one!

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Common Misconceptions

Now we are ready to tackle the actual *timing* of the “rapture” with respect to the GT. But before we do, let us first consider why people hold to a Pre-Tribulation (Pre-Trib) as opposed to a Post-Tribulation (Post-Trib) rapture position.

Before we get started, I need to stress that the second category, the so-called “Mid-Tribulation” (MId-Trib) rapture view, does not really exist. It’s a misnomer. The GT only lasts for 3 and a half years, or 42 months, or 1,260 days, or a time, and times, and half a time (cf. Rev. 11.2; 12.6, 14; 13.5). Thus, there can only be two possible timelines: a Pre-Trib or a Post-Trib timetable. The 7 years (“one week”) alluded to in Dan. 9.27 do not refer to the duration of the GT. Only the phrase “for half of the week” represents the GT. A Mid-Trib position would only be feasible if the rapture occurred in the middle of a supposed 7-year GT period. But since the GT lasts only for 3 and a half years, there can be no such thing as a Mid-Trib view! The “prewrath” position is also problematic because if the Day of the Lord begins during the last half of the GT period, then the Antichrist will not actually reign for 3 and a half years (Dan. 12.7; Rev. 11.2; 12.6; 13.5), thereby contradicting scripture. Not to mention that the GT represents Satan’s wrath (Dan. 7.25; Rev. 12.12; 13.5), not God’s wrath (aka “The Day of the Lord”: Joel 2.31; Acts 2.20), which will follow the 3-and-a-half-year GT period and will last for some time.

Another common misconception is to assume that the phrase “elect” in the NT is exclusively referring to the Jews, not to the church-in-Christ that is made up of all peoples. However, in Mt. 24.31, 40-41 the clause “they will gather his elect” is a direct reference to the church-in-Christ. In fact, in the NT, the term “elect” never refers to the Jews. For example, Rom. 11.7 shows the dichotomy between the elect and the Jews. Moreover, the letter (Col. 3.12) addressed to Christians at the church of Colossae, Asia Minor, uses the term “elect” (KJV/ERV/ASV) to refer to those “chosen” in Christ. Another clear differentiation between “the elect” and the Jews is found in Rom. 11.7. And Rom. 8.32-34 reinforces the doctrine that “God's elect” are those for whom Christ died to justify! The prophetic caveat in Mt. 24.24 (NRSV) makes it absolutely clear that the term “elect” is a sole reference to the body of Christ:

For false messiahs and false prophets will

appear and produce great signs and

omens, to lead astray, if possible, even the

elect.

Finally, let me say a few words about those who deny the rapture. Just because it is a relatively late teaching in the history of the church doesn’t make it false. Due to a renewed interest in the Bible during the enlightenment period, the disciplines of Biblical Criticism, Textual Criticism, and Biblical Eschatology were greatly enhanced. As a result, we know more about the Bible today than we ever did. Furthermore, just as there are clear indications of a future resurrection of the dead in both the Old and New Testaments (e.g. Dan. 12.1-2; 1 Cor. 15.22-23, 51-55), there are also clear indications of a future rapture immediately after the resurrection of the dead. First Thessalonians 4.16-17 reads:

For the Lord himself, with a cry of

command, with the archangel's call and

with the sound of God's trumpet, will

descend from heaven, and the dead in

Christ will rise first. Then we who are alive,

who are left, will be caught up in the clouds

together with them to meet the Lord in the

air; and so we will be with the Lord forever.

Accordingly, the rapture will occur immediately after the resurrection of the dead, when the body of Christ will be transformed from mortality into immortality, unable to die again (cf. 1 Cor. 15.51-55)!

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What is the Supposed Evidence for a Pre-Trib Rapture?

Now that we addressed some of the most common misconceptions about the rapture, we can get down to business. Pre-Trib scholars usually point to 1 Thess. 5.9, which says: “For God has destined us not for wrath [ὀργὴν] but for obtaining salvation,” and they interpret this verse to mean that the church will not experience “the wrath of God” (cf. Rev. 16.1). And they’ll usually say something to the effect that “God wouldn’t beat up his bride before marrying her.” They feel that the church *deserves* special privileges and therefore God is *obligated*, according to his word, to guarantee its safe passage from the coming disaster.

However, the GT is NOT God’s wrath; it’s Satan’s wrath! Accordingly, Rev. 12.12 reads:

But woe to the earth and the sea, for the

devil has come down to you with great

wrath, because he knows that his time is

short!

What is more, there never was a time when the church was immune from crisis and persecution. Quite the contrary. Throughout its history, the church has always experienced various forms of persecution. According to the martyrdom accounts, a glance into the life of Paul, or that of the apostles, will quickly prove this point. Scripture doesn’t say that God promises an escape from the tribulation. Quite the opposite. It says: “Through many tribulations we must enter the kingdom of God” (Acts 14.22 NASB). So it isn’t as if there are a precious few who are deemed worthy to escape. This theology of entitlement is certainly unscriptural and, therefore, unwarranted and without merit.

Another popular verse that’s often cited as evidence for a pre-trib rapture is Rev. 3.10 (KJV):

Because thou hast kept the word of my

patience, I also will keep thee from the hour

of temptation, which shall come upon all the

world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.

However, the preposition ἐκ (which is usually translated as “from” or “from out of”) has several other meanings, such as “of,” “through,” “by,” and so the verse could equally imply that God promises “to watch over” or “to guard” (Gk. ἐτήρησας) the believers *through* the hour of temptation (πειρασμός) that is coming upon the whole world: (see https://biblehub.com/greek/1537.htm). Therefore, according to this verse, it’s not entirely clear whether the faithful are removed from the earth or whether they go *through* “the hour of temptation” with God’s protection. It’s not even clear whether the verse is referring to the GT because that event is typically described as θλῖψις μεγάλη (Mt. 24.21) or ἡμέρα θλίψεως (Dan. 12.1 LXX), not as πειρασμός (Rev. 3.10).

——-

The Case for a Post-Trib Rapture

So, where is the evidence for a Post-Trib rapture, and is it conclusive? We’ve already discussed 2 Thess. 2.1-7 and concluded that this text predicts a sequence of eschatological events in which the “Antichrist” will be revealed PRIOR to the timing of the rapture. As we said earlier, 2 Thess. 2.1-3 is teaching against the doctrine of imminence and stresses that the rapture cannot take place “unless the rebellion comes first and the lawless one is revealed.” We also said that 2 Thess. 2.1 is employing rapture-language (Gk. ἐπισυναγωγῆς ἐπ αὐτόν; “gathered together to him”). And there’s a further stipulation that has to be met before the rapture can occur, and before the “lawless one” can be revealed, to wit, someone must be removed from the earth. Since the Antichrist will obviously be revealed at the beginning of the GT period (cf. Mt. 24.15-21; 2 Thess. 2.3-4) there can’t possibly be a pretrib rapture!

Similar to 2 Thess. 2.3-4 ff., Mt. 24.21 says that the GT (Gk. θλῖψις μεγάλη) will begin “when you see the desolating sacrilege standing in the holy place” (Mt. 24.15). Apparently, this is the time period when the GT commences. Then, Mt. 24.29-31 goes on to say that the “gathering” of the Son of Man’s elect (i.e. ‘the rapture’) occurs AFTER the GT (Gk. *μετὰ* τὴν θλῖψιν τῶν ἡμερῶν ἐκείνων):

Immediately after the suffering of those

days the sun will be darkened, and the

moon will not give its light; the stars will fall

from heaven, and the powers of heaven will

be shaken. Then the sign of the Son of Man

will appear in heaven, and then all the

tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will

see ‘the Son of Man coming on the clouds

of heaven’ with power and great glory. And

he will send out his angels with a loud

trumpet call, and they will gather his elect

from the four winds, from one end of

heaven to the other.

Make no mistake. Matthew 24.40-41 reinforces the previous thematic material——to ensure that it’s understood as a reference to the *rapture*——by adding additional details:

Then two will be in the field; one will be

taken and one will be left. Two women will

be grinding meal together; one will be taken

and one will be left.

The original Greek text of Matthew 24.31 uses the exact same rapture-language (ἐπισυνάξουσιν “gather together”) which 2 Thessalonians 2.1 uses (ἐπισυναγωγῆς “gathered together to him”). In Matthew 24.31, the phrase “gather together” (his elect) is a translation of the Greek term ἐπισυνάξουσιν, which comes from ἐπισυνάγω (“to gather together,” “to collect,” “to assemble”). Matthew 24.31 makes it abundantly clear that Jesus will *gather together* “His elect from the four winds, from one end of the sky to the other.” Once again, according to the 24th chapter and the 29th verse of the Matthean text, the *rapture* will transpire “immediately AFTER the suffering [i.e. GT] of those days” (emphasis added). Thus, the Post-Trib interpretation of Mt. 24 is incontestable! But there’s more.

The clincher, the passage that settles the matter conclusively is Rev. 20.4-6. This passage tells us that those who were killed during the GT took part in the first resurrection. However, given that the rapture is contemporaneous with the first resurrection (1 Thess. 4.16-17), and since those who took part in the first resurrection came out of the GT, it means that the rapture must also take place *after* the GT! Rev. 20.4-6 reads:

Then I saw thrones, and those seated on

them were given authority to judge. I also

saw the souls of those who had been

beheaded for their testimony to Jesus and

for the word of God. They had not

worshiped the beast or its image and had

not received its mark on their foreheads or

their hands. They came to life and reigned

with Christ a thousand years. (The rest of

the dead did not come to life until the

thousand years were ended.) This is the

first resurrection. Blessed and holy are

those who share in the first resurrection.

Hence, if this is the first resurrection that takes place AFTER the GT, then there can’t possibly be an earlier one, as the Pre-Trib doctrine assumes. Remember that we are not speculating here. We are using an important hermeneutical principle of exegesis, called, “the analogy of Scripture.” It means that Scripture should interpret Scripture. Therefore, our exegesis is not only sound but is also within the larger *canonical context* or theology of Scripture. That is to say, we’re not employing an isolated, out-of-context verse but rather a running theme that covers many books of the Bible. The chronological parallels of all these timelines regarding the rapture directly contradict the Pre-Trib theory. And although, admittedly, it would be far more comforting to adhere to the Pre-Trib rapture doctrine, it would be equally deceptive and fallacious since it does not agree with, and is unauthorized by, Scripture.

——-

Further Evidence of a Post-Trib Rapture: The Last Trumpet

But there is further evidence of a Post-Trib rapture based on certain parallel phrases and verbal agreements. There’s a common trumpet-motif that runs across the following passages. Notice, for example, 1 Thess. 4.16, which says that Christ will appear for the rapture “with the sound of God's trumpet.” We find the exact same theme in Mt. 24.31 in which the Son of Man “will send out his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds.” Similarly, 1 Cor. 15.51-52 explicitly states that the resurrection of the dead will take place “at the last trumpet.” So, when is the last trumpet? According to Rev. 11.15, the last (or 7th) trumpet is blown during the time period when the Lord’s Messiah begins to reign over the entire world, so it is obviously a period that takes place AFTER the GT:

Then the seventh angel blew his trumpet,

and there were loud voices in heaven,

saying, ‘The kingdom of the world has

become the kingdom of our Lord and of his

Messiah, and he will reign forever and ever.’

Therefore, the last trumpet is yet another clue of the chronological timetable of the rapture in that it follows, rather than precedes, the GT.

——-

Is the Church Mentioned After Rev. 4.1?

There are those who teach that the rapture of the church is implied in Rev. 4.1, and they further assert that since the church is not mentioned after that in the rest of the Book, and given that the tribulation *is* subsequently mentioned, this would strongly suggest a Pre-Trib rapture. However, given that Rev. 4.1 is specifically referring to John and no one else, it’s not entirely clear whether or not the rapture is implied. Moreover, there’s something amiss about the Pre-Trib interpretation because the church is actually mentioned numerous times after Rev. 4.1. The church is mentioned in Rev. 5.8-10 by way of the 24 elders, which seemingly represent a remnant of the redeemed tribulation saints who meet in council before the throne of God in preparation for the coming judgment of the world! Mention is also made of the Jewish remnant of 144,000 saints in Rev. 7.4. There’s also the “great multitude that no one could count” (Rev. 7.9), which are actually tribulation saints “who have come out of the great ordeal” (Rev. 7.14). The 2 witnesses of Rev. 11 also represent the church, as does the woman of Rev. 12. Not to mention that the “Beast” persecutes the church in Rev. 13, while the Bride of Christ (the church) is referenced once again in Rev. 19.7, even though the rapture presumably hasn’t happened yet. As you can see, the “church” is mentioned many times. These findings would render the Pre-Trib conclusion untenable!

——-

Conclusion

Why would Jesus instruct the church in Mt. 24.23-27 ff. on how to conduct itself during the GT if it had already left the earth? It wouldn’t make any sense. So, no matter how you look at it, it’s abundantly clear from the many proof-texts that we’ve encountered that the *rapture* at the end (or towards the end [Mt. 24.22]) of the GT period represents the soundest position! As far as I’m concerned, the Pre-Trib position has been thoroughly debunked! It is completely bogus and misinformed.

It’s important to know the sequence of eschatological events so that the community of faith can be better equipped and prepared for the GT! And although it is not a salvation issue, Scripture warns that during the GT “false messiahs and false prophets will appear and produce great signs and omens, to lead astray, if possible, even the elect” (Mt. 24.24). If that’s the case, then this means that the *elect* are here on earth during the time of the GT:

Keep awake therefore, for you do not know

on what day your Lord is coming (Mt.

24.42).

The point is to be ready! Because once the rapture takes place the doors of heaven will be shut. There will be no more opportunities for salvation!

Are We Currently Experiencing the Ten Plagues of Egypt?

By Author Eli Kittim

——-

It’s possible that Old Testament allegories may be precursors of future events. If we examine and compare the series of judgments that Moses inflicted upon *Egypt* (which represents the “nations”) to the final judgments in the book of Revelation, we’ll notice that both descriptions appear to exhibit identical events taking place. In our modern comparison it isn’t so much the presence of any one of the following plagues that is significant but rather the combination of all ten simultaneously. If we pay close attention, we’ll see that what is currently happening around the world is reminiscent of the Biblical Plagues of Egypt:

1 Locusts: Ex. 10.1–20 (cf. Rev. 9.3). The terrifying prospect and food shortages currently happening in Africa, the Middle East, and Asia are the result of extremely large and unprecedented populations of locusts, which Is unlike anything in our lifetime!

2 Thunderstorm of hail and fire: Ex. 9.13–35 (cf. Rev. 16.21). Mammoth tornadoes, giant cyclones, extremely violent hurricanes, massive earthquakes, huge typhoons, and fantastic superstorms have recently wiped out large human populations, coupled with large-scale conflagrations, unprecedented and unique wildfires that have devastated and literally destroyed incredibly large-areas of real estate in California and Australia, among other places.

3 Pestilence (includes animals) Ex. 9.1-7 (cf. Rev 6.8). Pestilences, such as those that come from animals (e.g. coronavirus that comes from bats), are plagues of one form or another. This includes plagues and pandemics the likes of which have never been seen before. For ex, just look at how fast the coronavirus pandemic started from China and spread around the world, causing worldwide economic shutdown and killing hundreds of thousands of people!

4 Water to Blood: Ex. 7.14–24 (cf. Rev. 8.8; 16.3-4). Consider the great earthquakes and powerful tsunamis that have spread terror of late, such as the 2004 magnitude 9.1-9.3 M that unleashed a super tsunami that killed approximately 230k ppl in 14 countries, “making it one of the deadliest natural disasters in recorded history” (2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami; Wiki), literally turning water into blood . . .

5 Death of firstborn: Ex. 11.1–12.36. The deaths of our loved ones (our first-born love [including but not limited to the mysterious coronavirus illness claiming children]) during this horrendous pandemic can be seen as another pestilence coming from the Biblical arsenal of plagues. And since “Egypt” represents all the nations (Gentiles) in the Bible, it would not be inappropriate to call it a pandemic that continues to kill our most treasured possessions. Not to mention the fact that we have the highest abortion rate in human history, with almost 11 million abortions worldwide this year!

6 Flies Ex. 8.20-32. The fourth *plague* of Egypt was of creatures capable of harming people and livestock. The Torah uses the term ‘arob (עָרוֹב "mixture" or "swarm"). That’s the exact same term used by the modern media to refer to the *locusts* that are currently devastating vast areas of the earth (including agriculture and food supplies) and causing famine and great terror in their wake. Not to mention the recent sightings of an increase in Asian giant hornets (aka murder hornets) that are extremely dangerous for bee populations, and may signal the end times.

7 Frogs: Ex. 7.25–8.15 (cf. Rev. 16.13). The super storms and hurricanes have produced one of the most spectacular frog and toad breeding seasons seen in decades in places like Florida, just as we see frog population explosions in places like Vermont, the Netherlands, Jersey (British Isles), and other places . . .

8 Lice or gnats: Ex. 8.16-19. There’s a surge in black fly populations, mosquitoes, and biting gnats that are killing livestock, and deer, and have forced nature center closure in Arkansas, for ex. The super lice surge is now found In 48 US states, and has caught public attention. They have developed a resistance to the pesticides and are growing in great numbers.

9 Boils or Sores: Ex. 9.8–12 (cf. Rev. 16.2). Boils are caused by bacteria. Today, nearly 50,000 men, women and children are dying each and every day from emerging infectious diseases caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites.

10 Darkness for three days: Ex. 10.21–29 (cf. Rev. 16.10). This is a plague that is yet to come. We have briefly experienced its effects during several blackouts in the US. But this particular darkness is related to the end times:

“For at that time there will be great suffering, such as has not been from the beginning of the world until now, no, and never will be” (Mt. 24.21).

It is associated with the Day of the Lord:

“Immediately after the suffering of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of heaven will be shaken” (Mt. 24.29).

And it lasts 3 symbolic days because that’s how long the “great tribulation” will last, namely, three and a half years (cf. Dan. 7.25; 9.27; 12.7; Rev. 11.2-3; 12.6, 14; 13.5).

It is probably caused by a nuclear war that is triggered in the Middle East (Rev. 9.14) and spills over into Israel (cf. Ezek. 38.1-9, 14-16):

“This shall be the plague with which the Lord will strike all the peoples that wage war against Jerusalem: their flesh shall rot while they are still on their feet; their eyes shall rot in their sockets, and their tongues shall rot in their mouths” (Zech. 14.12).

Therefore, we can draw parallels between the judgments of Exodus and those of Revelation since they are strikingly similar! Could it be mere coincidence? I think not!

——-

Conclusion

If we look around our world today, the *increase* and *intensity* of these “plagues” has definitely multiplied exponentially in the last few decades in comparison with previous times. If we also acknowledge what prophecy scholars are telling us, namely, that the *restoration* of Israel represents the greatest fulfillment of Biblical end-time prophecy (e.g. Dan. 9.24-27; Ezek. 38.8), which was also known to one of the greatest scientists that ever lived, Isaac Newton, then Jesus’ saying becomes all the more remarkable and comprehensible when taking into account these prophetic circumstances:

“this generation will not pass away until all these things take place” (Mt. 24.34).

Most prophecy scholars believe that Jesus is referring to the *last generation* associated with the restoration of Israel. According to Psalm 90.10, a generation is equal to 70-80 years. Thus, 2020, when the “birth pangs” (Mt. 24.8) began, lies at the midpoint of that prophesied generation (2018-2028)! Which raises a significant question: are we living in the end times?

——-

Another significant prophetic marker is Matthew 24.6-8, a passage that is often interpreted as describing world wars, which first began in the 20th century:

“And you will hear of wars and rumors of wars; see that you are not alarmed; for this must take place, but the end is not yet. For nation will rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom, and there will be famines and earthquakes in various places: all this is but the beginning of the birth pangs.”

——-

Another important sign of the end times is the prophesied restoration of Israel, whose rebirth heralds the coming reign of the messiah. Daniel’s 70 weeks prophecy——if its starting date is 14 May 1948 (the founding of the modern state of Israel)——culminates in or around 2020. Perhaps the ending of the Mayan Calendar (2012), Malachiae’s “Prophecy of the Popes” (2013) that seems to end with the current pope, according to the experts, and the unique Blood Moon Tetrad of 2014-15 that fell on Biblical feasts and holy days are all pointing to the current crisis and the beginning of a new world order!

——-

Are these signs pointing to increasing turbulence in the future? And are they indicators or markers of a coming apocalypse? Almost all Bible prophecy experts answer that question with a resounding *Yes* (including this author)! In fact, I’ve been predicting that something disastrous would happen by 2020 for a good ten years now. And I was right!

Who Are the Two Beasts of Revelation 13?

By Author Eli Kittim

A “Beast” Represents An Empire

In the Bible, a “beast” represents a kingdom or an empire (see Dan. 7.3 ff.). Dan. 7.3 reports that “four great beasts came up out of the sea, different from one another.” In Dan. 7.4 we read: “The first was like a lion and had eagles' wings. Then, as I watched, its wings were plucked off, and it was lifted up from the ground and made to stand on two feet like a human being; and a human mind was given to it.” So, although it initially appears as an empire, it ends up looking like a human being, probably signifying its leader.

•••••

The Danielic narrative continues. Then a second beast appears, but this one is not depicted as a human being. Dan. 7.5 reads: “Another beast appeared, a second one, that looked like a bear. It was raised up on one side, had three tusks in its mouth among its teeth and was told, ‘Arise, devour many bodies!’ “ This is certainly not a human being. Dan. 7.6 goes on to describe a third “beast” that is also nonhuman, given that it has four heads: “After this, as I watched, another appeared, like a leopard. The beast had four wings of a bird on its back and four heads; and dominion was given to it.” The “dominion” that “was given to it” signifies that it’s some type of a political, economic, or military power and certainly not an individual!

A “Horn” Signifies A King

Dan. 7.7 clearly demonstrates that these beasts represent “kingdoms” or “empires” because it also mentions that the fourth beast had *ten horns,* signifying “ten kings” (see Rev. 17.12: “the ten horns that you saw are ten kings”). Daniel 7.7 declares:

“After this I saw in the visions by night a fourth beast, terrifying and dreadful and exceedingly strong. It had great iron teeth and was devouring, breaking in pieces, and stamping what was left with its feet. It was different from all the beasts that preceded it, and it had ten horns.”

It’s in Dan. 7.8 that a little horn (a king) appears, in addition to the 10 earlier horns, and this king is said to be a human being. But he arises out of the fourth beast (or empire). Dan. 7.17 gives us the exact interpretation:

“As for these four great beasts, four kings shall arise out of the earth.” However, Dan. 7.23-24 is even more precise by referring to the fourth beast as “a fourth kingdom on earth”:

“As for the fourth beast, there shall be a fourth kingdom on earth that shall be different from all the other kingdoms; it shall devour the whole earth, and trample it down, and break it to pieces. As for the ten horns, out of this kingdom ten kings shall arise, and another shall arise after them. This one shall be different from the former ones, and shall put down three kings.”

Thus, in Daniel 7, a “beast” represents a kingdom, while a “horn” signifies a king. Of course, the last king of the final empire will be the one we call the “Antichrist,” who will rule on earth for 3 and a half years (i.e. during the time of the Great Tribulation):

“He shall speak words against the Most High, shall wear out the holy ones of the Most High, and shall attempt to change the sacred seasons and the law; and they shall be given into his power for a time, two times, and half a time” (Dan. 7.25).

The First Beast of Revelation 13

Revelation 13.1 reads:

“And I saw a beast rising out of the sea, having ten horns and seven heads” (cf. Rev. 12).

This is obviously not a description of a human being but of the final empire on earth (cf. Dan. 2; Rev. 12; 17.9-15; for further details on why this is the final empire on earth, see https://www.instagram.com/p/BYr5b5HgBq1/?igshid=1ml02os1or44x Click “more” to view the successive empires).

Revelation 13.3 goes on to say:

“One of its heads seemed to have received a death-blow, but its mortal wound had been healed. In amazement the whole earth followed the beast.”

Question: is the whole earth following a king or a kingdom? It’s quite possible that the Bible has conflated the leader with his actual kingdom, as in Dan. 7.4 where the first beast is transformed into a human being. The evidence for this is that Rev. 13.3 uses the personal pronoun “his” (Gk. αὐτοῦ) in the phrase, “his mortal wound was healed,” which is also found elsewhere in the chapter.

And even though a “beast” is typically an empire, and a “horn” a king, nevertheless this chapter suggests that the so-called first “beast” is both a person and an empire.

•••••

The beast will be granted authority for 42 months (Rev.13.5). Rev 13.7 suggests that the beast will persecute the “saints,” war against them and come out victorious, creating a religious apartheid in the process, and that authority will be given to him over every nation and every language on the planet for three and a half years. Rev. 13.3 suggests that the beast’s resurrection from the dead is what stirs great amazement and causes “the whole earth” to follow him, and ultimately to worship him (v. 8).

The Second Beast of Revelation 13

First off, it’s important to note that, unlike the first beast, the second beast is never explicitly referred to as a person (e.g. “he”) in the Greek text. No wonder that the NRSV descriptions of the second beast are always translated as “it.” And given that we are told that “It exercises all the authority of the first beast on its behalf” (Rev. 13.12), it’s reasonable to assume that it represents some kind of political/religious entity. This explains why it performs the socioeconomic and military functions as well as the public relations of the first beast. And since we know that Biblically a beast represents an empire, it seems quite plausible that the second beast is a reference to a nation. Rev. 13.11 refers to the second beast as ἄλλο θηρίον (Gk. “another beast”), which is suggestive of another nation. A further distinction is that the second beast came “out of the earth,” in contrast to the first beast that arose “out of the sea.”

•••••

So, let’s review the descriptions of the second beast. Rev. 13.11 talks of the appearance of another beast. This one came out of the Earth (not the Sea); “it had two horns like a lamb and it spoke like a dragon.”

This could be a reference to an ecclesiastical monarchy, suggested by the phrase “two horns like a lamb,” that might be governed by 2 heads of state (i.e. 2 horns/kings, such as the 2 heads of the Vatican, Pope Francis and President Bertello [the Holy See and the Vatican City State], for example). In Rev 13.12, this enigmatic second “beast,” which is probably a political/religious institution, makes the inhabitants of the earth to worship the first beast due to the latter’s miraculous resurrection. And the second beast also makes great signs, so that even fire descends from the sky. Although this could be in the category of the miraculous, it’s probably a reference to a nuclear holocaust. At any rate, Rev 13.14 suggests that this second “beast” deceives the entire world through great signs and insists that an *image* be made to the first beast who was killed by some type of weapon yet miraculously came back from the dead. And, in Rev. 13.15, the *image* was animated and took on lifelike qualities. Those who didn’t worship it were to be killed. What is more, the second beast causes all to have a mark on their right hand or forehead (v. 16), “so that no one can buy or sell who does not have the mark, that is, the name of the beast or the number of its name” (v. 17). Rev 13.18 goes on to say:

“Here is wisdom. He who has understanding, vote the number of the beast; it’s a number of a human being, and his number is 600, 60, 6” (my translation).

Who Is the First Beast?

Obviously, the reference in Rev. 13.18 is to the first beast, not the second. And the solution to the riddle of his identity may be associated with the time-period in which he’s *voted into office,* that is, the time-frame during which his political party gains ascendancy. Thus, the triple-digit 666 could be a cryptic code of this particular time-period which might be deciphered and decrypted only through a sort of retrograde inversion or reversal: (i.e. “999”):

The year 1999 seven month,

From the sky will come a great King of terror:

To bring back to life the great King of Angolmois, (the Mongols),

Before after Mars to reign by good luck

(Century X, Quatrain 72)

“Nostradamus' most famous doomsday prediction warns future generations of a King of Terror descending from the skies in July 1999. This holy terror could be linked to the Third Antichrist,” writes John Hogue, an authority on Nostradamus! It is beyond the scope of this paper to describe who the Antichrist might be, but I will briefly mention what most eschatological studies indicate.

•••••

We are accustomed to think of the European Union as the Revived Roman Empire of Bible Prophecy, with a focus primarily on the Western rather than the Eastern leg of this Empire, which was supplanted by Russia after the fall of Byzantium in 1453. The Septuagint, an early Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, uses the phrase "Ρως Μοσοχ"----which seemingly stands for Ρωσία (the Greek word for Russia) and Μόσχα (the Greek term for Moscow)----in Ezek. 38.2 to identify the country from the far north that will head up a large coalition against Israel in the latter days (see Ezek. 38.15-16). Moreover, according to Josephus, a first-century scholar and historian, "the land of Magog," which is also mentioned in Ezek. 38.2, refers to the Scythians (Ant., bk. I, 6), and thus represents contemporary Russia. And although the "chief prince" of this nation is not explicitly mentioned as the Antichrist (cf. "the troops of the prince who is to come," Dan. 9.26), Ezek. 38 is quite suggestive in this regard, while clearly pointing to the Eastern leg of the Roman Empire! Most Bible prophecy experts agree that this is a reference to Russia. Therefore, the point I made earlier about 666 being a cryptic inversion of 999 has a great deal to do with the current leader of Russia, Vladimir Putin, who actually came to power in 1999!

What Is the Second Beast?

According to the undermentioned symbols of Bible prophecy, the second beast with “two horns like a lamb,” which is traditionally associated with the false prophet of Revelation, appears to represent the Vatican City-State, a Country in Europe and the headquarters of the Roman Catholic Church! Rev 17.1-6 reads:

“Then one of the seven angels who had the seven bowls came and said to me, ‘Come, I will show you the judgment of the great whore who is seated on many waters, with whom the kings of the earth have committed fornication, and with the wine of whose fornication the inhabitants of the earth have become drunk [the sacramental wine of the Eucharist?].’ So he carried me away in the spirit into a wilderness, and I saw a woman sitting on a scarlet beast that was full of blasphemous names, and it had seven heads and ten horns. The woman was clothed in purple and scarlet, and adorned with gold and jewels and pearls, holding in her hand a golden cup full of abominations and the impurities of her fornication; and on her forehead was written a name, a mystery: ‘Babylon the great, mother of whores and of earth's abominations.’ And I saw that the woman was drunk with the blood of the saints and the blood of the witnesses to Jesus [martyrs who were killed as heretics by the Catholic Church?].”

The symbolism of drunkenness “with the blood of the saints” coupled with the golden cup in her hand suggest not only the perpetual sacramental wine of the Eucharist but also the innumerable saints that were burned or killed as heretics by the Catholic Church. The specific colored attire of verse 4 also matches the Vatican dress code: for example, the purple cassocks worn by Bishops and honorary prelates, as well as the scarlet cassocks worn by members of the College of Cardinals. Moreover, the commingling with the kings of the earth (v. 2) is suggestive of the union of church and state in former times when the Catholic Church flaunted its power in Europe and controlled both countries and kings! She is also said to be “adorned with gold and jewels and pearls” (v. 4), an obvious description of the papal tiara (crown) that is adorned with gold and is heavily bejewelled with sapphires, rubies, emeralds, and other precious stones. As you can see, the specific symbols generated in Revelation 17 match perfectly with those of the Holy Mother Church, a term that is often used to refer to the Roman Catholics Church!

Conclusion

Studies in Biblical eschatology suggest that the second beast is the so-called “false prophet” of Rev. 16.13:

“And I saw three foul spirits like frogs coming from the mouth of the dragon, from the mouth of the beast, and from the mouth of the false prophet.”

This verse would strongly indicate that the false prophet represents a religious figure/institution. And the previous symbolism strongly suggests that it might be the Roman Catholic Church. After all, the term Antichrist doesn’t only mean “against Christ”; it also means “in place of Christ.” Similarly, the term Vicar of Christ (Lat. Vicarius Christi) means that the Pope is the”earthly representative of Christ” or acts “in place of Christ” (i.e. Antichrist)! Also, the second beast appears to be in collaboration with the first beast in controlling the world for 42 months (during the time of the Great Tribulation), as well as the one that causes all to take the latter’s “mark,” while killing all those who refuse. The Bible warns that those who take the mark of the beast will be eternally condemned (Rev. 14:9-10). So, the coded trilogy of 666 appears to be a reference to a person, to wit, the so-called first beast of Revelation 13. Astoundingly, most comprehensive Bible-prophecy studies suggest that this figure is most likely the leader of Russia!

•••••

So the so-called “whore” (πόρνη) of Revelation 17.1 (the second beast) appears to be the Papacy, which is sitting on the first beast, while the “scarlet beast that was full of blasphemous names, and . . . had seven heads and ten horns” (Rev. 17.3) represents the final superpower on earth, namely, Russia!

(For further details on this point, see https://www.instagram.com/p/BqRDTWHgOIQ/?igshid=fzgzeal7j94t

Click “more” to view the 10 kings).

•••••

However, later in the narrative, Revelation 17 reveals that Russia, despite its alliance, will nevertheless turn on the Vatican and destroy the Papacy, probably after it has accomplished its mission of promoting its leader:

“The beast and the ten horns you saw will hate the prostitute. They will bring her to ruin and leave her naked; they will eat her flesh and burn her with fire” (Rev. 17.16).

•••••

So, let’s answer this paper’s original question.

. . . . .

Question: Who Are the Two Beasts of Revelation 13?

Answer: The first Beast probably represents Vladimir Putin and Russia, while the second Beast seemingly represents the Pope (Vatican) and the Roman Catholic Church!

The Quran: Revelation or Forgery?

By Goodreads Author Eli Kittim

——-

Did Muhammad Exist?

Before we embark on a brief criticism of the Quran, it’s important to note that there is “very little biographical information” (Wiki) concerning the historicity of its founder, Muhammad:

Attempts to distinguish between the

historical elements and the unhistorical

elements of many of the reports of

Muhammad have not been very successful

(Wiki).

(see: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historicity_of_Muhammad#Views_of_secular_historians).

en.m.wikipedia.org

Historicity of Muhammad - Wikipedia

Historicity of Muhammad - Wikipedia

Of course, this opens up the possibility of whether or not the unknown author of the Quran invented the Muhammad tradition to bolster his credibility. In order to determine the answer to this question, it is crucial to consider the evidence of *intertextuality* in the Quran, that is to say, the literary dependence of the Quran on earlier texts and sources.

——-

How historically reliable is the Quran?

Firstly, with regard to source criticism——that is, the sources that the Quran’s message is derived from——there are some very serious issues involved. For example, there are well-known parallelisms between the Quran and the extra-biblical, non-inspired book of Talmud (e.g. Surah 5:32; cf. Sanhedrin 37a) as well as borrowing from Christian apocryphal works that were written hundreds of years after the purported events and which claim to be legitimate Christian gospels but are not. Case in point, The Infancy Gospel of Thomas:

The Infancy Gospel of Thomas is thought to

be Gnostic in origin. . . . Early Christians

regarded the Infancy Gospel of Thomas as

inauthentic and heretical. Hippolytus

identified it as a fake and a heresy in his

Refutation of All Heresies, and his

contemporary Origen referred to it in a

similar way in a homily written in the early

third century. Eusebius rejected it as a

heretical ‘fiction’ in the third book of his

fourth-century Church History, and Pope

Gelasius I included it in his list of heretical

books in the fifth century. While non-

canonical in Christianity, the Infancy Gospel

of Thomas contains many miracles and

stories of Jesus referenced in the Qur'an,

such as Jesus giving life to clay birds (Wiki).

So, the Quran clearly employs Jewish and Christian apocryphal works that were never accepted as canonical or as “inspired” either by Jews or Christians. Thus, at least some of the sources of the Quran are highly dubious.

Secondly, in 632 CE, following Muhammad’s death, the Battle of Yamama ensued where a great number of those who had supposedly retained the Quran in their memory (hafiz) actually died. How then can Muslims claim the preservation of the Quran through memory and oral transmission?

Thirdly, the New Testament is the best attested book from the ancient world as well as the most scrutinized book in history, and one which has a critical edition. By contrast, the Quran has not been critically scrutinized rigorously in the same manner, nor does it have a critical edition, nor is the manuscript evidence made available to scholars for serious study. There’s a secrecy surrounding it that seems to prevent scholarly investigations. For example, because it lacks a critical edition, there are no footnotes in the Quran to notify the reader about manuscript evidence or textual discrepancies or omissions, such that “(some verses eaten by a goat; Ibn Majah, Book of Nikah, p.39) or that (Umar records the missing verses; Bukhari 8.82.816 & 817).

Fourthly, Orientalists have often questioned the historical authenticity of the Quran by charging Uthman ibn Affan (the 3rd Caliph of Islam) of consigning variant copies of the Quran to the flames during his reign.

Fifthly, the controlled transmission of the Quran makes it impossible to know what was the original. Hence its textual integrity is seriously compromised. By contrast, in the case of the New Testament, for example, since no one person controlled all the manuscripts, it would be impossible to uniformly corrupt all the documents. In the case of the Quran, however, the text was in fact controlled by one person, the khalifa, as attested by Uthman's authority to recall and uniformly revise all the manuscripts. Therefore, it would have been extremely easy for the Quran to have been uniformly corrupted in a textually undetectable manner. For example, the “Sanaa manuscript,” which contains earlier developments of the Quran, demonstrates textual variances that diverge from the Uthman copy.

In conclusion, the Quran doesn’t allow us to come any closer to the original text than the Uthmanic Revised Standard Version 20 years removed from Muhammad. Any errors which found their way into the URSV would be permanent and uncorrectable. And, unfortunately, historical accounts from early Islam tell us that such errors existed!

——-

The Quran is Based on Dubious Sources

Besides the numerous and traceable Judeo-Christian apocryphal works that the author used within the Quran itself, he also got a lot of his ideas from a group that was an offshoot of the Ebionites called the “Sabians,” variously known as Mandaeans or Elcesaites. The Sabians followed Hermeticism and adored John the Baptizer:

Occasionally,

Mandaeans are called

‘Christians of Saint

John’ . . . the ‘Sabians’

are described several

times in the Quran as

People of the Book,

alongside Jews and

Christians (Wiki).

According to Origen and Eusebius, the Sabians used an extra-biblical book that they claimed was given by an Angel (maybe another idea adopted by Muhammad?) to deny portions of Scripture as well as the writings of Paul! So, this idea of challenging Christianity and claiming to have received a new revelation from an angel is quite common in ancient times. It is not unique to Islam. Others had made similar claims. Thus, without completely rejecting the possibility of *revelation* in at least some portions of the Quran, the majority of its theological narratives are largely based on dubious and questionable sources, derived from spurious texts that were under the radar of heresiologists across the ancient world!

——-

Two Apocryphal Works Employed by the Quran to Deny the Crucifixion of Jesus

//Second Treatise of the Great Seth is an apocryphal Gnostic writing discovered in the Codex VII of the Nag Hammadi codices and dates to around the third century. The author is unknown, and the Seth referenced in the title appears nowhere in the text. Instead Seth is thought to reference the third son of Adam and Eve to whom gnosis was first revealed, according to some gnostics. The author appears to belong to a group of gnostics who maintain that Jesus Christ was not crucified on the cross. Instead the text says that Simon of Cyrene was mistaken for Jesus and crucified in his place. Jesus is described as standing by and "laughing at their ignorance”// (Wiki).

//The Gnostic Apocalypse of Peter is a text found amongst the Nag Hammadi library, and part of the New Testament apocrypha. Like the vast majority of texts in the Nag Hammadi collection, it is heavily gnostic. It was probably written around 100-200 AD. Since the only known copy is written in Coptic, it is also known as the Coptic Apocalypse of Peter.

The text takes gnostic interpretations of the crucifixion to the extreme, picturing Jesus as laughing and warning against people who cleave to the name of a dead man, thinking they shall become pure. Like some of the rarer Gnostic writings, this one also doubts the established Crucifixion story which places Jesus on the cross. Instead, according to this text, there was a substitute:

He whom you saw on the

tree, glad and laughing,

this is the living Jesus.

But this one into whose

hands and feet they

drive the nails is his

fleshly part, which is the

substitute being put to

shame, the one who

came into being in his

likeness. But look at him

and me// (Wiki).

This is attested in the Quran:

That they said (in boast), ‘We killed Christ

Jesus the son of Mary, the Messenger of

Allah’—but they killed him not, nor crucified

him, but so it was made to appear to them,

and those who differ therein are full of

doubts, with no [certain] knowledge, but

only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they

killed him not—nay, Allah raised him up unto

Himself; and Allah is Exalted in Power,

Wise (Sura 4:157-158, Yusuf Ali).

——-

A Possible Forgery: Is Muhammad Copying Augustine?

Muhammad (570 – 632 CE) seems to have modelled his conversion on Augustine of Hippo (354 – 430 CE), who was without a doubt the greatest theologian and philosopher of his day! Case in point, in 386 CE, Augustine converted to Christianity from the pagan Machanean religion. Similarly, in 610 CE, Muhammad converted to Islam from the “Jahiliyya" religion, which worshipped Allah as the creator god as well as the Kaaba in Mecca. About 224 years earlier St. Augustine had heard a voice that told him to “take up and read,” a line which became very famous and reverberated through the centuries:

As Augustine later told it, his conversion

was prompted by hearing a child's voice

say ‘take up and read’ (Latin: tolle, lege).

Resorting to the Sortes Sanctorum, he

opened a book of St. Paul's writings (codex

apostoli, 8.12.29) at random and read

Romans 13: 13–14: Not in rioting and

drunkenness, not in chambering and

wantonness, not in strife and envying, but

put on the Lord Jesus Christ, and make no

provision for the flesh to fulfill the lusts

thereof (Wiki).

By comparison, Muhammad appears to have used a similar line to claim that he, too, heard an Angel’s voice repeatedly say to him: “Read.” Given that Muhammad was presumably familiar with Judaism and Christianity (and especially with the foremost leading authority of his day, the African Augustine of Hippo), it seems very likely that he modelled his conversion on the latter. And, if true, that would certainly constitute a forgery!

——-

Are Allah’s Oaths Self-contradictory in the Quran?

The aforementioned textual criticisms are further compounded when we realize that the Quran contains further theological discrepancies. For example, there are numerous verses in the Quran where Allah is swearing by created things that are less-than-God, thus committing “shirk” (i.e. the sin of ascribing divine status to any other beings beside Allah). Here’s a case in point. In sura 81:15, Allah says: “But nay! I swear by the stars.” Another example is sura 91 verse 1: “I swear by the sun and its brilliance.” When God supposedly swears by something which is less than himself the truth value of his assertion is obviously weakened. By definition, an oath is meant to buttress an argument, not to decrease the weight thereof. Therefore, the truth value of an oath is equivalent to, and connected with, the truth value of the one who declares it. As such, Allah’s oaths (swearing by created things) directly contradict his so-called divine status. By contrast, the God of the Bible swears by Himself, since there is nothing greater to swear under (cf. Gen. 22.16; Isa. 45.23; Heb. 6.13). By definition, an oath is a solemn attestation of the truth of one's words. In this case, how can Allah’s oaths be trustworthy if they appeal to something that is less than himself? Answer: they cannot! It appears, then, that the aforementioned oaths in the Quran are reflecting a human rather than a divine author.

——-

Is Muhammad the Prophesied False Prophet of Revelation?

During the Early Middle

Ages, Christendom

largely viewed Islam as a

Christological heresy

and Muhammad as a

false prophet (Wiki).

In short, following the Arab conquest of the Middle East and due to the *military expansion* of Islam into Europe and Central Asia since the 700’s (toppling one country after another), Muhammad was increasingly seen as a possible candidate for the office of the *false-prophet-of-Revelation* (cf. Rev. 16.13; 19.20; 20.10): https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Medieval_Christian_views_on_Muhammad

en.m.wikipedia.org

Medieval Christian views on Muhammad - Wikipedia

Medieval Christian views on Muhammad - Wikipedia

——-

Conclusion

Muslims claim that the Quran is neither corrupted nor influenced by Judeo-Christian sources, and yet upon further scrutiny the book clearly incorporates passages from both the Jewish Talmud and from various Christian apocryphal works. Plagiarism abounds, and so does forgery. Therefore, it is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to maintain that it’s a “revelation” when at least some of the sources of the Quran are highly dubious!

Moreover, Islam has nothing new to offer by way of revelation. Its doctrine could simply be classified as a modified theological redundancy of the Judeo-Christian tradition and the Biblical heritage that preceded it. The main difference between Islam and Christianity is this. Unlike the Quran’s singular witness and source——given that it was only revealed to *one* man (Muhammad)——the revelations of the New Testament were imparted to many different people, thereby authenticating its message by multiple attestations and witnesses!

——-