The Day Of The Lord - Tumblr Posts

11 years ago

The day of the LORD is near, for the LORD has prepared a sacrifice.

--Zephaniah 1:7


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11 years ago

The day of the LORD [or 'the end of the world'] is near, for the LORD has prepared a sacrifice.

Zephaniah 1:7


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11 years ago
"The Great Empire Of The Antichrist Will Begin Where Once Was Attilas Empire And The New Xerxes Will

"The great Empire of the Antichrist will begin where once was Attila’s empire and the new Xerxes will descend with great and countless numbers" (Nostradamus, Epistle to Henry II).


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2 years ago

2 Peter 3:1-14

The Day of the Lord

1 Dear friends, this is now my second letter to you. I have written both of them as reminders to stimulate you to wholesome thinking. 2 I want you to recall the words spoken in the past by the holy prophets and the command given by our Lord and Savior through your apostles.

3 Above all, you must understand that in the last days scoffers will come, scoffing and following their own evil desires. 4 They will say, “Where is this ‘coming’ he promised? Ever since our ancestors died, everything goes on as it has since the beginning of creation.” 5 But they deliberately forget that long ago by God’s word the heavens came into being and the earth was formed out of water and by water. 6 By these waters also the world of that time was deluged and destroyed. 7 By the same word the present heavens and earth are reserved for fire, being kept for the day of judgment and destruction of the ungodly.

8 But do not forget this one thing, dear friends: With the Lord a day is like a thousand years, and a thousand years are like a day. 9 The Lord is not slow in keeping his promise, as some understand slowness. Instead he is patient with you, not wanting anyone to perish, but everyone to come to repentance.

10 But the day of the Lord will come like a thief. The heavens will disappear with a roar; the elements will be destroyed by fire, and the earth and everything done in it will be laid bare.

11 Since everything will be destroyed in this way, what kind of people ought you to be? You ought to live holy and godly lives 12 as you look forward to the day of God and speed its coming. That day will bring about the destruction of the heavens by fire, and the elements will melt in the heat. 13 But in keeping with his promise we are looking forward to a new heaven and a new earth, where righteousness dwells.

14 So then, dear friends, since you are looking forward to this, make every effort to be found spotless, blameless and at peace with him.


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5 years ago

Why Does the New Testament Refer to Christ’s Future Coming as a “Revelation”?

Why Does The New Testament Refer To Christs Future Coming As A Revelation?

By Goodreads Author Eli Kittim

It’s important to note the language that’s often used with regard to the future coming of Christ, namely, as the “revelation” of Jesus. Why do the New Testament (NT) authors refer to Christ’s coming as a “revelation”? We must first understand what this word means in Greek, and how it is used in the NT. The actual Greek word used in the NT is ἀποκάλυψις (“apokalupsis”). The English word apocalypse comes from the Greek word apokalupsis, which means “revelation.” The terms “revelation” or “revealed” indicate the disclosure of something that was previously unknown. Thus, according to the meaning of the term revelation, no one knows the mystery or secret prior to its disclosure.

Therefore, we cannot use the biblical term “revelation” to imply that something previously known is made known a second time. That’s not what the Greek term apokalupsis means. If it was previously revealed, then it cannot be revealed again. In other words, it’s not a revelation if it’s already known. It’s only a revelation if it is still unknown. Thus, the word “revelation” necessarily implies a first time disclosure or an initial unveiling, appearing, or manifestation. It means that something that was previously unknown and/or unseen has finally been revealed and/or manifested. But if it’s already known and happens to reappear a second time, it is not considered to be a “revelation.” Thus, a revelation by default means “a first-time” occurrence. In other words, it’s an event that is happening for the very first time. By definition, a “revelation” is never disclosed twice.

Let’s now briefly look at some NT verses, which mention the future coming of Christ, to examine whether they are referring to a second coming, a coming back, or a return, as is commonly thought:

1 Cor. 4.5; 15.23; 16.22; 1 Thess. 2.19; 4.15; 2 Thess. 1.10; 2.1; Heb. 10.37; Jas. 5.7; 2 Pet. 1.16; 3.3; Rev. 2.16; 22.20.

As you can see, a second coming or a return is nowhere indicated in the above-mentioned verses. Conversely, Jesus’ Coming is variously referred to as an appearance, a manifestation, or a “revelation” in the last days, which seems to imply an initial coming, a first coming, and the only coming. Surprisingly, it’s not referred to as a return, a coming back, or a second coming. As N.T. Wright correctly points out, the eschatological references to Jesus in the New Testament don’t mention a second coming but rather a future appearance or manifestation. Why not? We'll explore this question a little later, but for now let’s look at the NT eschatological literature with regard to what Christians have traditionally referred to as the “second coming” of Christ. There are many references to Jesus’ future “coming” in the NT——(variously called “the day of Christ”; cf. 1 Cor. 1.8; 3.13; Phil. 1.6; 2.16; 2 Thess. 2.2)——but nowhere is it mentioned as a second coming or as a return!

Let’s examine elsewhere whether a second coming is indicated by the NT authors:

Lk. 17.30; 1 Cor. 1.7; Phil. 1.6; Col. 3.4; 1 Thess. 1.10; 2 Thess. 1.7; 1 Tim. 6.14; 2 Tim. 4.1; Titus 2.13; 1 Pet. 1.13; 5.1; 1 Jn. 2.28; Rev. 1.1.

Astoundingly, if we study these verses, none of them refer to Jesus’ second coming. No return was explicitly mentioned. Many verses refer to Jesus’ “revelation,” which was previously unknown and which will become known in the future. As I mentioned earlier, the term “revelation” means something coming to light or being manifested for the very first time!

The wholesale absence of a second coming or return in all these verses must be addressed. If this is in fact the second coming of Christ, as is commonly believed, then why don’t we find appropriate terminology that is consistent with a “coming-again” or a “return”? Why don’t we find, for instance, words such as επανέρχομαι (come again), or επιστρέφω (return), or ἔρχομαι πάλιν (come again/return), etc.? Although these terms are used with some frequency in the NT, they are never applied to the revelation of Jesus Christ. There are, however, some confusing Bible mistranslations (for example, in Acts 1.11) which claim that Jesus “will return.” But Acts 1.11 never mentions Jesus’ return or his coming back to earth. These misleading translations are not faithful to the original Greek text. Some of these inaccurate translations include the NIV, NLT, BSB, CEV, GNT, ISV, AMP, GW, NET Bible, NHEB, & the WEB. All these Bible versions mistranslate the verse as if Jesus “will come back” or “will return.” However, the original Greek uses a word (ἐλεύσεται) that does not imply a “coming back” or a “return.” It simply indicates *one* single coming! The Greek text uses the word ἐλεύσεται, which simply means “will come.” Not only do the NT writers refrain from calling Jesus’ future visitation “a second coming,” but, conversely, they further indicate that this is his first and only advent, a momentous event that will occur hapax (“once for all”) “in the end of the world” (Heb. 9.26 KJV), or “at the final point of time” (1 Peter 1.20 NJB).

None of the NT authors referred to the future visitation of Christ as a second coming. They all referred to it as a coming, a manifestation, an appearance, especially a “revelation,” but certainly not a second coming; not a coming again: neither a coming back nor a return. And given what we know about the term “revelation” and its unique meaning, the numerous references to Jesus’ “revelation” is a strong indication that these communities expected Jesus to appear for the first time in the end of the world!

What About the Hebrews 9.28 Reference to Christ Who is Said to “appear a second time”?

The only apparent contradiction to the above-mentioned body of evidence is a single reference to Christ appearing “a second time” in Hebrews 9.28. However, I will demonstrate that it is not a contradiction and that it fits perfectly with the previous material. Let me unpack it for you.

Notice that the word in Heb. 9.28 is not παρουσία (Parousia, i.e. “presence”)——which is commonly interpreted as a “coming”——but rather ἐκ δευτέρου (“a second time”), which is a clue that v. 28 is seemingly pointing back to the previous verse (v. 26), and particularly to the term ἅπαξ (which implies “a first time”).

It’s important that we understand the temporal or eschatological timeline of Hebrews 9.26 before we interpret verse 9.28. For example, it’s clear from the textual evidence that the idiomatic expression ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων (“at the end of the age” Heb. 9.26) is referring to the end of the world (cf. Lampe A Patristic Greek Lexicon, p. 1340; Dan. 12.4 LXX; Mt. 13.39–40, 49; Mt. 24.3; Mt. 28.20). Keep in mind that this time period is associated with “the Day of the Lord,” “the day of Christ,” and with Judgment day.

What is more, the book of Hebrews would not explicitly state that Christ will appear ONCE in one verse (v. 26), and then say the exact opposite in the following verse——namely, that he’ll appear TWICE (v. 28). So, that’s another clue that something else is meant by the author. Notice that the term ἅπαξ (“once for all”) is used 3x, once in each verse respectively: in v. 26 to refer to the number of times Christ appears; in v. 27 with regard to how many times people die (in contradistinction to reincarnation); and in v. 28 with regard to how many times Christ dies for the sins of many.

Observe also in Hebrews 1.1-2 that God does not speak to humankind through his Son in Antiquity, but rather ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν ἡμερῶν “in the last days.” Similarly, Hebrews 9.26b tells us that Christ’s sacrifice is offered hapax “once and for all” at the end of the age (or at the end of the world; see above-mentioned citations). It tells us not only the precise time frame of his visitation but also the reason for his appearance: “to remove sin by the sacrifice of himself.” That would be his DEATH!

The next verse (v. 27) tells us that all mortals (including Christ) live once and die once. But it also begins to show an important parallel or analogy between all mortals and Christ that becomes the key to understanding the meaning of the following verse (v. 28). Notice the specific language that is used to draw an analogy between all mortals and Christ: “Just as all mortals,” “so Christ,” and so on. In other words, what applies to mortals applies to Christ. It implies that just as all mortals die once——followed by the resurrection and the judgment——so Christ having DIED ONCE, “will appear a second time” for the resurrection and the judgment. Given the internal consistency and development of the passage in which Christ will die ONCE “in the end of the world” (Heb. 9.26 KJV), the next two verses then evoke “the judgment” to signify Christ’s resurrection from the dead:

26b νυνί δὲ ἅπαξ ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων εἰς ἀθέτησιν [τῆς] ἁμαρτίας διὰ τῆς θυσίας αὐτοῦ πεφανέρωται. 27 καί καθ’ ὅσον ἀπόκειται τοῖς ἀνθρώποις ἅπαξ ἀποθανεῖν, μετὰ δὲ τοῦτο κρίσις, 28 οὕτως καὶ ὁ Χριστὸς ἅπαξ προσενεχθεὶς εἰς τὸ πολλῶν ἀνενεγκεῖν ἁμαρτίας ἐκ δευτέρου χωρὶς ἁμαρτίας ὀφθήσεται τοῖς αὐτὸν ἀπεκδεχομένοις εἰς σωτηρίαν. (NA28)

Translation (NRSV):

26b “But as it is, he has appeared once for all at the end of the age to remove sin by the sacrifice of himself. 27 And just as it is appointed for mortals to die once, and after that the judgment, 28 so Christ, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time, not to deal with sin, but to save those who are eagerly waiting for him.”

Conclusion

Just as v. 26 speaks of Christ’s demise, so vv. 27-28 imply his resurrection, which must necessarily follow his death, according to the NT story! Thus, the reference to Christ appearing “a second time” (Heb. 9.28) is referring to his resurrection from the dead, which will “bring salvation to those who are waiting for him” (NIV)! That’s precisely why Jesus says, “In a little while you will see me no more, and then after a little while you will see me” (Jn 16.16). The notion that Christ will be the first to be resurrected in the last days is also mentioned in 1 Cor 15:22-28! Similarly, theologian Dennis McCallum writes, “No Old Testament passage indicates that Messiah will come twice.” In his book, Satan and His Kingdom (p. 38), he writes:

"In some cases, predictions about the [OT] suffering servant are immediately next to prophecies about King Messiah, without any mention of a more-than-two-thousand-year gap between them (e.g., cross-reference Isaiah 61:1 ff and Jesus’ commentary in Luke 4:21)."

Thus, there is a large body of evidence which suggests that the one and only visitation of Christ will transpire in the last days. This is particularly evident in certain verses which imply that Christ has not yet been revealed (cf. Lk. 17.30)! It is reminiscent of the Epistles, in which Jesus’ long anticipated manifestation is variously referenced as “The revelation of Jesus Christ” (1 Cor. 1.7; 1 Pet. 1.7, 13):

“And now, little children, abide in him, so that when he [Jesus] is REVEALED we may have confidence and not be put to shame before him at his COMING” (1 Jn 2.28 NRSV emphasis added).

In this verse, notice that Jesus’ •revelation• is exclusively related to his future “coming.” In fact, in John 9.39, the literary Jesus says: “I came into this world for judgment.” In other words, his one and only coming is associated with judgment day!

This brief topical study therefore deserves academic consideration because it presents an original approach to the interpretation of the NT that challenges the way we study the second coming of Christ. It is a new Paradigm Shift!


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4 years ago
The Seven Churches Of Revelation: History Or Prophecy?

The Seven Churches of Revelation: History or Prophecy?

By Published Author Eli Kittim

Preachers whose sermons are on the 7 churches of Revelation assume that the context is of historical significance and therefore usually focus on the moral implications, but they completely miss the most important prophetic elements of the text, such as the background setting (i.e. the place where the narrative takes place), the significant players that are mentioned, the temporal sequence of events, as well as the apocalyptic symbolism that weaves everything together into a unity.

Unlike the typical “a-church-after-God’s-heart” homily that you’ve often heard regarding the 7 so-called historical churches in Revelation, I would like to draw your attention instead to the unique setting of the Book, to its arrangement of scenery: its mise-en-scène, if you will! Viewing the first chapters of Revelation from this angle will allow us to gain a new perspective on the Seven Churches of Asia and free our hermeneutic from the typical proleptic and anachronistic interpretations that have been irresponsibly applied to the text time and time again.

From beginning to end, Revelation claims to be an exclusively prophetic Book (cf. Rev. 1.1, 3, 19; 22.7, 10, 18, 19)! If we treat it as a Book on history, however, we will inevitably distort its futurist message, which undeniably comprises apocalyptic visions, and ultimately contradict its authorial intention. Yet that is precisely how the first 3 chapters of Revelation have been traditionally read, that is, as contemporaneous events and happenings during the time of John in the first century CE. But perhaps we are not reading them correctly. I’m suggesting a mode of interpretation that is consistent with the rest of the Book, namely, that the first three chapters of Revelation have a prophetic role to play whose sole purpose is to provide an outline of how the end-times begin!

Bearing this in mind, let us now see how the Apocalypse of John is actually presented to the reader. The Book opens with a declaration to promulgate “the words of the prophecy” (Rev. 1.3 NRSV):

“Blessed is the one who reads aloud the

words of the prophecy, and blessed are

those who hear and who keep what is

written in it; for the time is near.”

And so from the very outset this Book claims to contain a prophecy. It does not seem to be interested in conveying history. Next, we are told that John, who is the recipient of this future revelation, is also, by way of the Spirit, an *eschatological* partaker in the coming tribulation or persecution of Christianity in Asia Minor (i.e. Modern-day Turkey), and that he is figuratively situated on the Greek island of Patmos “because of the word of God and the testimony of Jesus.” Given that John claims to be “in the spirit on the Lord’s day [i.e. on the day of the Lord]” (Rev. 1.9-11), his mise-en-scène (i.e. the arrangement or setting of scenery) seems to have prophetic rather than historical value:

“I, John, your brother who share with you in

Jesus the persecution and the kingdom and

the patient endurance, was on the island

called Patmos because of the word of God

and the testimony of Jesus. I was in the

spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind

me a loud voice like a trumpet saying,

‘Write in a book what you see and send it to

the seven churches, to Ephesus, to Smyrna,

to Pergamum, to Thyatira, to Sardis, to

Philadelphia, and to Laodicea.’ “

Thus, John is basically instructed to write 7 letters to the Christian Churches that are facing persecution in Turkey! If we temporarily suspend Eusebius’ “Church History” in which John is portrayed as an exile——the accuracy of which has often been called into question——we can begin to view the *eschatological* scenery that the Book of Revelation is actually depicting. If in fact the Book of Revelation is an overlay of the end-time events described also in Mt. 24, then it must naturally start with “the beginning of the birth pangs” (Mt. 24.8) that lead up to the “great suffering” (Mt. 24.21), otherwise known as the Great Tribulation. And indeed it does! Moreover, we find Turkey also playing a prominent role in Ezekiel 38, the famous chapter on end-times prophecy!

The Ezekiel 38 War

Ezekiel 38 names a confederacy of nations that will invade many countries, including Israel, in the last days. Although there have been debates among scholars as to the precise location of some of these ancient regions, most of them have been identified with a certain degree of confidence. Of the several regions mentioned by Ezekiel, who is putting pen to parchment in the 6th century BCE, the majority of them were located in what we today would call Turkey. For example, Beth-Togarmah and Gomer are viewed as ancient regions in Asia Minor [Turkey].

Although there are admittedly conflicting reports with scholars being divided on the issue of the origins of Meshech and Tubal (as to whether they represent Russia or Turkey), the following list shows some of the historical research supporting a Turkish connection:

1. The Oxford Bible Atlas says of Meshech and Tubal that they’re “regions in Asia Minor [Turkey].”

2. The IVP Bible Background Commentary lists Meshech, Tubal, and Togarmah as “sections or peoples in Asia Minor” [Turkey].

3. The New Bible Dictionary places both Meshech and Tubal in Turkey.

4. Ralph Alexander, Old Testament scholar, in the Expositor’s Bible Commentary says, “Meshech and Tubal refer to areas in eastern Turkey, southwest of Russia and northwest of Iran.”

5. Edwin Yamauchi, scholar and historian places both Meshech and Tubal in modern day Turkey.

6. Mark Hitchcock, pastor, author and well-known prophecy teacher, places Meshech and Tubal in modern day Turkey.

7. Tim Lahaye and Ed Hindson, in their Encyclopedia of Popular Bible Prophecies, also place both Meshech and Tubal in Turkey.

8. Ron Rhodes, author and teacher in his book, Northern Storm Rising, also places Meshech and Tubal in Turkey.

9. Chuck Missler in his article, Meshech-Tubal Tensions with Syria also places Meshech and Tubal in modern day Turkey.

*Source Credit: Dalton Thomas

Therefore, of the eight regions mentioned in Ezek. 38.1-6, at least four of them are identified as parts of modern-day Turkey. And since this invasion is set to begin “in the latter years” (Ezek. 38.8), it demonstrates that Turkey will figure prominently in this campaign!

The other thing to notice, here, is that almost all the nations mentioned in Ezek. 38 were once part of the Turkish Ottoman Empire. For instance, Cush comprised the area of modern-day Ethiopia or Sudan, just south of Egypt, Put was where modern Libya and Algeria (N. Africa) are located, while Tubal, Gomer, Togarmah, and Meshech were apparently in Asia Minor. And parts of Persia were also under Ottoman rule during the Ottoman-Persian wars. All in all, Ezek. 38 sounds like it’s describing a resurgence of the Ottoman Empire, consisting of an Islamic coalition of nations! Similarly, in Revelation 12.1, the woman who gives birth to the messiah at the end of days is said to have “the moon under her feet.” That is the symbol of Islam. Therefore, if a revived Ottoman Empire is indicated in the Gog-Magog War, which leads up to the battle of Armageddon, then this means that Turkey must also be either explicitly or implicitly mentioned in the Book of Revelation! Hence the Turkish persecution of the 7 churches in the Book of Revelation!

The Prophecies of Paisios of Mount Athos

A number of extra-biblical prophecies have been attributed to Elder Paisios (1924–1994), a highly respected Greek Eastern-Orthodox ascetic from Mount Athos. They include the prediction that a future geopolitical war between Greece and Turkey will spill over and draw Russia into the conflict against Turkey, which will be the latter’s ultimate demise. Similarly, there’s a prophecy attributed to the 18th century Rabbi Elijah of Vilna, aka the Vilna Gaon, in which he purportedly said that Messiah will come right after “the Russians have reached the city of Constantinople [Istanbul].” In fact, Elder Paisios said that the trigger point of Greek-Turkish hostilities will be reached when Greece extends its territorial waters from 6 to 12 nautical miles. Recently, Greece and Turkey are at variance with each other over the demarcation of sea borders and the right to explore hydrocarbon resources in the Mediterranean. There have been both air and naval incidents, tensions and hostilities have flared up and are steadily increasing since August of 2020. Recep Tayyip Erdoğan, the incumbent President of Turkey, in violation of international law continues to employ intimidation tactics and war-narratives in an effort to reinforce his expansionist plans. It’s no secret that he wants to rebuild the Ottoman Empire and restore its former glory. He also aspires to become the Caliph, the supreme ruler of the Muslim world! However, France has come to Greece’s aid with naval support in a countermeasure to push Erdoğan back. This situation is a disaster waiting to happen. In fact, Devlet Bahçeli, the Head of the Turkish National Movement Party, recently declared that war with Greece is “just a matter of time.” More to the point, Greece recently extended its territorial waters from 6 to 12 nautical miles in the Ionian Sea, sending a message to Turkey that it will soon do the same in the Aegean! According to Elder Paisios, this will be the trigger point of the conflict. At present, the situation in Turkey is very tense as Erdoğan has *persecuted* and shut down *Christian churches* while reverting Hagia Sophia to a mosque. That’s equivalent to the Israelis turning the Al-Aqsa Mosque into a Jewish Synagogue. It’s deplorable and provocative! It has caught the attention of the international community that has unanimously condemned this action. At any rate, this current standoff might explode into a full-blown war. According to some experts, this armed conflict over oil and gas reserves seems unavoidable! And that’s precisely where the Book of Revelation begins.

The Book of Revelation Opens with the Greek Islands, on the one hand, and the Persecuted Churches in Turkey, on the other!

In Revelation 17.9-10, John mentions the Empire that exists *contemporaneously* with the prophetic events of Revelation as they are temporally unfolding:

“This calls for a mind that has wisdom: the

seven heads are seven mountains on which

the woman is seated; also, they are seven

kings, of whom five have fallen, one is living,

and the other has not yet come; and when

he comes, he must remain only a little while.”

As regards the 8 empires of Revelation 17, John says that “five have fallen.” According to Dan. 2, that would be Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greece, Rome, and Byzantium. The One that “Is Living” at present is the Sixth One, which presumably persecutes the Christian Churches of Anatolia in the opening chapters of Revelation, namely, the Ottoman Empire of the Turks, which defeated the Byzantines in 1453. Incidentally, we know that John is not referring to the 1st century CE because the empire that “is living” at that time is the 4th (Rome), according to Daniel 2.40-42; 7.7. By contrast, Rev. 17.10 is referring to the prophesied 6th Empire as the “one [that] is still reigning” (WNT)! It could also be said that the Ottoman Empire actually triggered the End-Times (cf. Mt. 24.6-9) at the outset of the 20th century through the unprecedented Christian Persecutions & Genocides of Anatolia (Greek/Armenian), just prior to WWI and WWII, the brunt of which lasted for approximately 7 years, thus symbolizing the Tribulation of the 7 Christian Churches of Asia Minor that usher in the end of days in the Book of Revelation. So, in John’s own words, the empire that “is living” *now* (contemporaneously with the 7 churches) is the 6th empire: the Ottoman Empire. Why would John mention that in chapter 17 and verse 10? It’s obviously not Rome, as most people think. Rome was the 4th empire. It’s probably because the end-times will commence with a conflict pertaining to Asia Minor (Turkey). Think about it. Revelation is inundated with future predictions. Why would it spend its first 3 chapters on past or current events if it is said to be “The revelation of Jesus Christ” that contains information of “what must soon take place” (Rev. 1.1)?

Moreover, John tells us categorically and unequivocally that he was on the island of Patmos “in the spirit” (Rev. 1.10), NOT in the flesh! It appears, then, that John is on Patmos figuratively, not literally, in order to pronounce the testimony, which “is the spirit of prophecy” (Rev. 19.10d). What is more, John doesn’t tell us that he’s in exile. That is an extra-biblical interpretation. It’s a speculation that is not found in the text. This tradition, which says that John was banished to Patmos by the Roman authorities, is not credible because, although banishment was a common form of punishment by Rome for various offenses, nevertheless Tertullian’s account (in The Prescription of Heretics) is flavored with myth and legend given that he claims that John was banished after being plunged into boiling oil in Rome and suffering nothing from it. This obviously fits in the category of urban legends. Nor does the author of Revelation say that he is on the island of Patmos physically. Rather, he says that he is there “in the spirit” in order to give us the scenery, so to speak, the prophetic background of how the tribulation begins “on the Lord’s day” (Rev. 1.10) or on the day of the Lord!

Conclusion

Revelation 1.3 explicitly states that this is an exclusively prophetic Book which is not concerned with past history. The prophetic implications are further reinforced by its author, John, who claims to be “in the spirit on the Lord’s day [i.e. on the day of the Lord]” (Rev. 1.9-11). Thus, the mise-en-scène (i.e. the arrangement or setting of scenery) is itself part of the apocalyptic vision, which implicates Turkey in end-time events related to the Great Tribulation! Turkey is also implicated in the Ezekiel 38 War, which sets the stage for Armageddon, the final great battle between good and evil!

Furthermore, the prophecies of Paisios of Mount Athos center around an end-times conflict in the Mediterranean between Greece and Turkey, Biblically represented by Patmos and Asia Minor respectively, “where Satan's throne is” said to be located (Rev. 2.13). Moreover, what lends considerable support to my exegesis is the fact that John connects the timeline of the 7 churches account not with the Roman Empire (the 4th) but rather with the Ottoman Empire (the 6th), which is said to be currently reigning in Rev. 17.10. For example, we know that John is not referring to the 1st century CE because the empire that “is living” at that time is the 4th [Rome]. By contrast, Rev. 17.10 is explicitly referring to the so-called current empire that “is living” and reigning at that time, after “five have [already] fallen.” That would be the prophesied 6th empire, namely, the Ottoman Empire, the continuation of which is modern Turkey! Also, chapters 2 and 3 employ tribulation language, or the language of crisis. Given that chapters 2 and 3 reference the tribulation (θλῖψιν 2:9), and since authority and rule (2:26-27) and white garments (3:4-5) are promised therein to those who overcome, it is more than likely that these represent the tribulation saints (cf. Luke 22:30). Evidence for this comes by way of a parallel passage in Rev. 7:13-14 concerning those coming out of the Great Tribulation who “have washed their robes and made them white.” Therefore, these seemingly represent the overcomers of Revelation 2 and 3! In short, the first 3 chapters of Revelation are part of prophecy, NOT history, featuring Turkey as the epicenter of end-time events! In fact, our traditional proleptic and anachronistic interpretations——in which we have erroneously *added* a “historical” component to the first 3 chapters of Revelation, while *taking* “away from the words of the book of this prophecy”——are strongly condemned by the author himself (Rev. 22.18-19):

“I warn everyone who hears the words of the

prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to

them, God will add to that person the

plagues described in this book; if anyone

takes away from the words of the book of

this prophecy, God will take away that

person’s share in the tree of life and in the

holy city, which are described in this book.”


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4 years ago
Preterism Debunked

Preterism Debunked

By Eli Kittim

Was 70 CE the Worst Period Ever in the History of the Earth?

In talking about the great ordeal (aka “the great tribulation”), Mt. 24.21 says that there will be the greatest suffering ever in the history of the world before Jesus comes. 70 CE was not, by any stretch of the imagination, the worst period ever in the history of the earth. We have ample evidence of the Black Death (1346-1353), the Flu Pandemic (1918), and the two World Wars that killed over 100 million people, which were far worse than the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 CE. This fact alone severely weakens the Preterist argument of the imminent eschatology of Jesus and the apostles, which is characterised by the notion that the eschaton was supposed to take place in first century Palestine!

Similarly, Dan. 12.1, after discussing the worst period in the history of the earth, goes on to say that the resurrection of the dead will occur during the same time period (Dan. 12.2). Then, the Book of Daniel goes on to talk about “the time of the end” (12.4, 9), which obviously goes far beyond the first century. In point of fact, the Book of Daniel and the Gospel of Matthew offer two conspicuous examples which demonstrate that “the end of the days” (Dan. 12.13), or “the end” of human history (Mt. 24.14), is radically different than what the Preterist interpreters make it out to be, namely, a first century fulfillment. If anything, Scripture’s future end-time prophecies are meant to signal the ultimate dissolution of the universe (2 Pet. 3.10) and the creation of “a new heaven and a new earth” (Rev. 21.1). Events that obviously haven’t happened yet!

Could the Latter Years or The Day of the Lord Refer to the Time of Antiquity?

Biblically, the “eschaton” is set in the context of a future time-period that is intimately connected with “the day of the Lord” (ημέρα κυρίου)! And as regards the idiomatic expression, the Day of the Lord, almost all Bible scholars believe that it is an event that will take place at the end of the world (cf. Isa. 2.12; Ezek. 30.3; Joel 2.31-32; Amos 5.18-20; Zeph. 1.14-18; Acts 2.20). This, too, debunks the notion that the Day of the Lord was anticipated in the first century CE. Two Thessalonians 2.1-4 warns against such Preterist hypotheses by stating that the Day of Christ has not yet come, and that it won’t come until the arrival of the Antichrist at the end of days.

In fact, Preterism’s interpretative weakness can be exposed through many angles. For example, the end-times war known as the Gog-Magog war in Exekiel 38, which most prophecy experts ascribe to the future, is said to commence “in the latter years” (v. 8)! 70 CE certainly does not qualify as the latter years. It is untenable to suggest this hypothesis which does not fit with any of the end-time biblical prophecies and predictions.

Is the Terminal Generation the one that Will Not Pass Away Until All these Things Take Place?

Modern Greek linguistics demonstrate that “temporal values (past, present, future) are not established in Greek by use of the verbal aspects (or tense-forms) alone” (Stanley E. Porter, Idioms of the Greek New Testament [2nd edn; Sheffield: Sheffield Academic, 1999], p. 25). In other words, just because a verb is in the present tense doesn’t mean that the action is happening at present! So, this point demonstrates that the insistence on the present generation-interpretation does not necessarily square well with the authorial intent. For ex, the Johannine Jesus says figuratively that the hour “is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God” (Jn. 5.25), and will come out of their graves. But we have no evidence that the resurrection of the dead happened in Antiquity. In fact, we have evidence that, according to Dan. 12.2, the resurrection of the dead is a future end-time event. Same with Mt. 24.34: “This generation will not pass away until all these things have taken place.” What things? Answer: all the future end-time events that are described in Mt. 24. Thus, Jesus is clearly describing the last generation on earth. For instance, the notion that some of Jesus’ followers would not die before they saw him coming in glory (16.27) or in his kingdom (Mt. 16.28) cannot be attributed to a supposed first-century CE context. Since Jesus has yet to come in his glory, it can only be ascribed to an eschatological spectrum of events. Since there is no historical record of these events ever taking place, the context of such passages is ultimately based not on preterism but futurism. In other words, the generation that is alive, at that future time, and sees these signs (as described in Mt. 24.33) is the same generation that will not die and witness the coming of the savior (cf. 1 Cor. 10.11)! In short, the timeline of “this generation” that “will not pass away” (Mt. 24.34) must be interpreted within the context of the prerequisite signs that will take place, not simply on linguistic grounds.

Translation and Exegesis of Biblical Greek Validates the Futurist Eschatology of the New Testament

If you add my particular contribution to the mix——where I discuss the explicit future eschatological verses in the Greek New Testament that refer to the end of the world——it turns out to be the final nail in the Preterist coffin! Phrases like τό πλήρωμα του χρόνου (Gal. 4.4; Eph. 1.10) refer to the final consummation when all things, both in the heavens and upon the earth, will conclude in Christ! Furthermore, the phrase επ´ εσχάτου των ημερων (Heb. 1.2) literally means “in the last days” and is an ipso facto reference to the end of the ages (cf. the alternative expression επ´ εσχάτου των χρόνων; 1 Pet. 1.20). These apocalyptic expressions are built on the term έσχατος (eschatos), which means “last in time.” In fact, the word eschatology is derived from the Greek term “eschaton.”

The Timeline of the Great Tribulation and the Resurrection of the Dead Does Not Square Well with the Apostolic Age

Many Biblical exegetes have traditionally misunderstood the inferred time-period associated with the phrase, “the time is near,” and have consequently assumed that both Jesus and the apostles expected the imminent end to happen in their lifetime. In fact, Bertrand Russell (the famous philosopher) wrote an essay indicating that he is not a Christian because, in his view, Jesus and the apostles were wrong about their imminent eschatology. These events never happened. Albert Schweitzer came to the same conclusion. Thereafter, many subsequent scholars followed suit.

(See the following article, which refutes this notion of imminent eschatology based on the koine Greek of the New Testament).

Is Paul Teaching an Imminent Eschatology in 1 Corinthians 15:51?
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El Kittim Some commentators have claimed that Paul’s language in 1 Corinthians 15:51 is referencing an imminent eschatology. Our primary

However, good exegesis requires that we evaluate the idiomatic expression “the time is near” (Rev. 1.3; 22.10) within its proper context, and therefore interpret it in light of the revelations that are associated with it. In other words, why is the warning in Rev. 22.10 not applicable to ancient times? Well, there are certain sign-posts that need to be deciphered first. And, in order to understand the particular timeline in question, we need a clear outline of the sequence of eschatological events. For example, the aforementioned apocalyptic locution “the time is near” is not mentioned in a vacuum as if it pertains to all generations, including that of the Apostolic Age, but rather in the context of the specific judgments of the tribulation period (see Rev. chs. 6–16). This specific tribulation period is inextricably connected to the “Beast” of Rev. 13, otherwise known as the “lawless one” (cf. 2 Thess. 2.3–4) or the Antichrist (1 Jn 2.18).

In order to ascertain the overall prophetic message of Revelation, the hermeneutical principle of the canonical context demands that we coalesce the different Biblical texts, as if we’re reading a single Book, rather than employing isolated, out-of-context passages to construct a subjective theology. For proper exegesis, we also need to use “the analogy of scripture,” rather than form opinions based on speculation and conjecture. In other words, we must allow scripture to interpret and define scripture. For instance, 2 Thess. 2.1–7 predicts a sequence of eschatological events in which the “Antichrist” will be revealed at roughly the same time as the “rapture,” the transporting of believers to heaven at the end of days. Incidentally, the rapture is said to occur contemporaneously with the general resurrection of the dead (cf. 1 Thess. 4.15–17). Since the general resurrection of the dead is an event that is associated with the apocalyptic time period known as the great tribulation——aka a period of “great suffering” (θλῖψις μεγάλη; Mt. 24.21; cf. Dan. 8.19; 12.1–2; Rev. 7.14)——2 Thess. 2.1-3 is teaching against the doctrine of imminence by stressing that the rapture and the resurrection cannot take place “unless the rebellion comes first and the lawless one is revealed.” Similarly, Daniel places the timeline of the resurrection in prophetic categories by stating that it will occur at the end of days (12.13)!

Let’s not forget that at the beginning of Matthew 24.3 a question is asked about the chronology of the signs of the times regarding these eschatological events:

“Tell us, when will this be, and what will be

the sign of your coming and of the end of

the age?”

It’s important to note, parenthetically, that the apocalyptic phrase “the end of the age” is actually a reference to the end of the world (see Mt. 13.39–40, 49; 24.3; 28.20). So, whatever eschatology one imposes on the New Testament, it must ultimately line up with the enumerated events discussed therein. By way of illustration, Mt. 24.21 says that the Great Tribulation (Gk. θλῖψις μεγάλη) will begin “when you see the desolating sacrilege standing in the holy place” (Mt. 24.15). This is further discussed in 2 Thess. 2.3–4 (cf. Dan. 9.27). Apparently, this is the same time period when the Great Tribulation will commence. Then, Mt. 24.29–31 goes on to discuss the “gathering” of the Son of Man’s elect (i.e. the rapture) within the time frame of the Great Tribulation (Gk. μετὰ τὴν θλῖψιν τῶν ἡμερῶν ἐκείνων). Therefore, the events of the rapture (1 Thess. 4.16–17) and the resurrection (Rev. 20.4–6) echo Daniel’s 12.1–2 reference regarding the general resurrection of the dead which must occur approximately in the same period of time as the phenomena of the Great Tribulation!

Further Evidence of Futurism from Revelation’s Global Wars & Geological Events

Further evidence that the eschatology of the New Testament is uniformly futurist, and not preterist, comes by way of the prophecy of the last empire on earth (Rev. 17.11), which has yet to come, that will play a major role during the time of the Great Tribulation (cf. Rev. 11.7; 12.3–6, 14; 17.9–13). Not to mention the prophetic references, in the Book of Revelation, to major geological events the scale of which has never before been seen in human history. For example, Rev. 6.14 alludes to how tectonic plates had been shifted to such an extent that “every mountain and island was removed from its place.” Revelation 16.20 adds that “every island fled away, and no mountains were to be found.” Such cataclysmic events have never been recorded before in human history! What is more, the descriptions in Luke 21 and the Book of Revelation pertain to global, not local, events. For example, Lk 21.10-11 talks about “Nation … against nation, and kingdom against kingdom,” and about earthquakes, plagues, and famines “in various places.” Revelation 6.8 tells us that “a fourth of the earth” will be wiped out “with sword, … famine, and plague.” Similarly, Rev. 6.15 mentions “the kings of the earth” and all of mankind seeking shelter “in the rocks of the mountains,” while Rev. 9.18 says that during this period “a third of mankind was killed by … three plagues.” Obviously, these are not local but global events. Incidentally, the phrase “was killed,” in Rev. 9.18, is a translation of the verb ἀπεκτάνθησαν, which is an aorist, indicative, passive, 3rd person plural form from ἀποκτείνω, meaning “to kill.” It is important to note that many verbs expressed in past tense, such as the aorist or the perfect-tense, do not actually tell us the timing of an event. There are, in fact, many perfect-tenses that are used for future prophecies. For example, Revelation 7.4 uses the perfect-tense τῶν ἐσφραγισμένων for those who “were sealed.” But this event obviously hasn’t happened yet. Similarly, Isaiah 53 is filled with past-tenses and yet it is a prophecy that Isaiah is writing about! Thus, a superficial reading of the text can often lead to erroneous interpretations.

Conclusion

Revelation 22.7, 9, 10, 18, and 19 repeats over and over again that this Book represents an exclusively prophetic Biblical text:

“Blessed is the one who keeps the words of

the prophecy of this book.”

This is also mentioned in the introduction (Rev. 1.3). Yet many Biblical expositors of a Preterist persuasion repeatedly violate Revelation’s reminder by interpreting certain events within a historical context, as if these events were expected to occur during the lifetime of the apostles. Not to mention that the Book of Revelation itself was written sometime around 96 CE and thus postdates the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 CE, which is often seen as the target date of the supposed eschaton.

As we have seen, good exegesis of “the time is near” phrase is only possible by way of the overall canonical context. Thus, Preterism involves a “proof-text fallacy” which comprises the idea of stringing together a number of out-of-context passages in order to validate the assumed imminent eschatology of the apostles. In other words, the Preterist conclusion is not compatible with the overall canonical context. This is equivalent to a coherence fallacy, that is to say, the illusion of Biblical coherence. Preterism also misinterprets the original Greek language of the New Testament, which is interested in the “aspect” rather than the “time” of an event.

I have outlined the overall canonical message of the Bible along with its specific prophetic content. So, when we look at all the prophetic predictions and combine them together to get a holistic understanding, we get a bigger picture of what will occur before the end. Therefore, how close we are to these events largely depends on how close we are to these prophetic signposts, temporally speaking. If you want to explore the prophetic markers of Mt. 24 from a historical perspective, see my article, Are We Living in the Last Days?

Are We Living in the Last Days?
Eli of Kittim
By Eli Kittim Mt 24.6-14 (NRSV): And you will hear of wars and rumors of wars; see that you are not alarmed; for this mu

Therefore, Revelation’s caveat that “the time is near” is most certainly not a reference to first-century Christianity (cf. 1 Cor. 10.11; Mt. 24.3)! In light of this study, that interpretation would be completely false. Rather, it means that if the reader understands all the Biblical predictions and the specific end-time sequence of events as parts of an integrated whole, then he or she can properly infer if the time is near simply by discerning whether or not the major prophetic events of the New Testament have taken place on a global scale. A close reading of the apocalyptic genre of the New Testament reveals that it is not alluding to a first century fulfillment but to an end-time expectation!


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